"I see a boy eating an apple."

Translation:אני רואֶה ילד אוכל תפוח.

September 16, 2016

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ani roeh yéled okhél tapúakh

[deactivated user]

    Does it translate to: "I see a boy eats an apple" Or is this also some form of a gerund or infinitive?


    The modern Hebrew present tense is the same in form as the Biblical Hebrew participle (gerundive).

    Going by all the evidence (including the present Duolingo sentence), the modern Hebrew present tense sometimes retains the old gerundive function. This allows the meaning of the present sentence to be conveyed in a single clause, rather than two clauses connected by "that".

    Leaving aside the fact that in English the gerundive looks different from the present simple, English can also convey the sense in single- or two-clause sentences:

    1. I can see a boy eating an apple.

    2. I can see that a boy is eating an apple.


    ...or I can see a boy eat an apple


    אנייי רואה ילד שאוכל


    What's the difference between 1 and 2?


    We cannot see what options did you get.


    I think they were exactly the same and it was a test to find out if learners could spot that.


    Next time copy them, or capture the screen.


    My guess is that one was "ani ro-eh" and the other was "ani ro-ah", which look the same without vowels.


    אני רואה ילד לאכול תפוח. How much odd is to use the infinitive here?


    People will probably understand but they might think you forgot to add "רוצה- wants". As in the boy wants to eat an apple. so it's not the end of the world but it is incorrect grammar


    Why don’t we have to use את here?


    Because we're not being specific. We're saying "he's eating AN apple". We're not saying "he's eating THE apple".


    I was thinking same, but i think that you should specify wich את your are using, i saw that someone answer you as it you were speaking את (at=you), as it is for you (for a female), but i think that you were referring to את (et) as it were a particle to mark the apple as A APPLE... I not sure, but i think that i heard the second way in some hebrew movie or something...


    Why is the gerund form not required?


    What is the difference between :

    אני אוכל התפוז וילדה אוכלת הגד


    האישה אוכלת גד וגבר אוכל לחם חם I think that, although i can commiting a mistake saying that, that is in first setence i am saying

    I eat the orange , and the girl eats the fish.

    And in the second sentence i am saying :

    Woman is eating fish and the man is eating hot bread .

    Does it make any sense for you hebrew speakers ? Can you explain the difference ?


    Your first sentence is incorrect. If you want to say "I eat the orange" you need to say אני אוכל את התפוז. You need את, as it is the direct object marker. Also, "The girl eats the fish" is הילדה אוכלת את הדג. Again, you need את.

    On the other hand, if you wrote אני אוכל תפוז והילדה אוכלת דג that would mean "I eat an orange and the girl eats a fish."

    I am not sure what difference you need explaining, since those are two completely different sentences.


    bro is דג no גד...


    Why no את after רואה? Isn't what follows in the accusative case?


    את is only required when the object is definite, i.e. when in English, it is preceded by the definite article:

    אני רואה ילד. is "I see a boy."

    אני רואה את הילד. is "I see the boy."


    The hint is misleading. Although I know that לאוכל is the infinitive, the hint said it was aldo the gerund form, so I used לאוכל eating.


    I was asked to translate I see a boy eat an apple. It said I had a typo when I chose the masculine form of 'to see' (). Why?

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