"I eat at noon."
Translation:Yo como al mediodía.
The definition said that at was spelled en. Why is it then spelled al on the solution?
"en" = "at" is not a hard and fast definition. referring to time, "at" is often "a" (at 4 o'clock is "a las 4) "al" is the combination of "a" and "el", and whenever the two combine that way they join to form "al." That is one of the only two contractions in Spanish, de+el = del being the other. what you got here is " a el mediodia" = "al medioda" = at the mid-day.
Words ending on 'a' are femal? So it should be 'a la mediodia'? What do I miss?
'dia' is an exception, in that it ends with 'a' and is masculine.
Not female, which implies sex, but feminine which implies gender (which is different to linguists than it is to us other folks). Nouns have gender, which means that a feminine noun requires feminine modifiers, but none of them are females.
Does the time always have the definite article with it? The literal translation 'I eat at the noon' is a bit cumbersome, but I understand if this is one of those 'that's just how it's done' kind of things.
Any non-tangible noun has a "the - define article" including abstract nouns such as science, justice, etc. . .
how sneaky of dualingo to show one translation of a word then not show what it actually reallly means.
I thought it was (al) but the peek said (en) so I changed it thinking I was wrong but then to find out I was right and marked wrong for the change. Come on Duo.
why can't you use (en) considering it is (at) in spanish when you hover the mouse cursor over the word, which is very misleading?
How does doulingo expect someone to learn when they give the wrong suggestions for answers?
No offense to the people who run this site, but I think if you have a problem etc. with a translation, then I do not advise relying SOLELY on this site for it. This applies for all things on here. And plus, in a language course there are bound to be exceptions, errors etc. Learning's not an easy, nor smooth process, believe me.
Still confused? This IS the Internet. ;)
Since the accent is normally on the penultimate syllable, why is there an accent over the 'i' in 'mediodia'? The 'ia' is not a diphthong here. The 'i' and the 'a' sound alone, so why the accent? Anyone?
I think the tilde is used to show that "the 'i' is not part of a diphthong (as in the pronunciation of piano), but a separate syllable. http://www.elearnspanishlanguage.com/pronunciation/diphthongs.html
Can someone help with when to use come over como? I'm guessing como is eat and come is eats but would like to be sure.
Check our conjugation of verbs, in this case "Comer". Como - I eat, Come - he/she/it/you eat, Comen, they/you(se) eat
I put "Como a mediodia" and DL said that I was correct, only suggesting that "Como al mediodía" was another translation. So was I correct or not?
I would imagine that since your translation was accepted, then it is likely to be correct, or at least very close.
With "yo" you use "como" for male or female.. "come" is for he (él), she (ella) and it
I am also confused about this convention as well. Could a moderator or a fluent speaker, or someone help some? Por favor.
the word pairs are day-night (dia-noche) and midnight-noon (media noche-mediodía)
Mediodía is not an interval of time, but a specific instant of the day.
For things done at specific instants, you use "a la" (femenina) or "al" (masculino) "a la media noche", "al mediodía"
For things done during intervals of time, you use "durante" or "por" (durante is prefered since it's less ambiguous) "durante el día", "durante la noche"
Think of it as "i eat at the middle of the day" since medio usually means middle and dia is day. Thats how i think of it