"You read them a book."
Translation:Τους διαβάζεις ένα βιβλίο.
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The problem with "διαβάζεις τους ένα βιβλίο" is the word order indeed. When you use the weak (shortened) form of the pronoun, it should precede the verb, otherwise you can use the strong type with a preposition "Τους διαβάζεις ένα βιβλίο" or "Διαβάζεις σε αυτούς ένα βιβλίο", the second sentence doesn't sound very natural though. "Διάβασέ τους ένα βιβλίο" in this word order can only be imperative ("διάβασε" alone could also be the third singular person of the simple past, but that needs another word order) so it shouldn't be given as a correct answer, because in English that would be "Read them a book"
Ένα βιβλίο τους is one of their books. Τούς is the weak form of αυτούς and when is used for an indirect object, it comes before the verb. If you want you can say "Διαβάζεις ένα βιβλίο σε αυτούς=You read a book to them" So its either "Weak Pronoun form+ verb" or "verb+σε+strong pronoun form" There are more detailed answers here: https://www.duolingo.com/comment/17690328
Τους is the weak form of the genitive pronoun for both masculine and feminine and in this case we use the genitive because we have an indirect object. Τις/Τες is the weak form of the accusative pronoun for feminine. The confusion comes from the fact that Τους is also the weak accusative for masculine.
I tried to be fancy and typed "Διαβάζεις σε αυτές ένα βιβλίο", which was marked as incorrect. Is there an actual mistake in this, or was I just not supposed to use the emphatic form? I'm aware that it's unusual (I was envisioning a situation where a son is mad at his parent for only reading a book to his sisters, but not to him).
That is correct. We already accept it as a correct translation. Could you please use the report button next time that you think something should be accepted as well as leave a message? This way we can see what you actually wrote and see if there was some typo or if it is a bug.
'You' is only implied in the Greek sentence, not spelled out, because of the verb ending -εις in διαβάζεις. The conjugation goes: (εγώ) διαβάζω, (εσύ) διαβάζεις, (αυτός/ή/ό) διαβάζει... So you don't need the pronoun. Τους is 'them' ('to them' in fact, indirect object in both languages). For τους to be a possessive ('their'), it has to be either after the noun (βιβλίο τους) or after δικό.
The spelling of read is second person singular, see the conjugation here.
the τους is the plural for "them".
That is correct. For more on the use of pronouns as indirect objects please read the comments here https://www.duolingo.com/comment/18895038 and for more on strong and weak pronoun forms, search for Greek AND weak AND strong AND pronoun AND forms in the discussion forum.
So in this sentence the book is the object and takes the accusative, and 'them' - which really means "to them" is also accusative? And that is why it is "τουσ" and not "των" ? I think in Latin and English grammar it would be considered dative. Do we have that in Greek? Sorry if that seems a bit nerdish but what for example would be the difference between I give you (away to someone) and i give to you. Would they both start σας δίνω ?
"Εσείς τους...." is correct and used in this translation....however this is only part of the sentence. You might have had a mistake in another part of there sentence.
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