"The child has become a man."
Translation:Το παιδί έχει γίνει άντρας.
Quick question. I know that there are a couple of verbs - είμαι and γίνομαι - whose use does not trigger accusative, as the noun isn't actually being acted upon. (Are there any more verbs like this?)
However, έχω does usually trigger accusative. In cases like the above sentence, does the γίνομαι override the έχω? In other words, would it always be wrong to use accusative?
Thanks in advance for any help!
Yes, it would be wrong to use the accusative with είμαι or γίνομαι. That's because those verbs don't have an object, but a predicate. The predicate is something that the subject is or will be or could/would be. Predicates are in nominative, not in accusative. Έχω γίνει is the present perfect form of γίνομαι, so the same rule applies regardless of the existance of έχω, which in this case is an auxiliary verb.