"The child has become a man."

Translation:Το παιδί έχει γίνει άντρας.

September 27, 2016

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Quick question. I know that there are a couple of verbs - είμαι and γίνομαι - whose use does not trigger accusative, as the noun isn't actually being acted upon. (Are there any more verbs like this?)

However, έχω does usually trigger accusative. In cases like the above sentence, does the γίνομαι override the έχω? In other words, would it always be wrong to use accusative?

Thanks in advance for any help!


Yes, it would be wrong to use the accusative with είμαι or γίνομαι. That's because those verbs don't have an object, but a predicate. The predicate is something that the subject is or will be or could/would be. Predicates are in nominative, not in accusative. Έχω γίνει is the present perfect form of γίνομαι, so the same rule applies regardless of the existance of έχω, which in this case is an auxiliary verb.


Thanks so much for explaining Troll, much appreciated.


το παιδί έχει γίνει ένας άντρας


Why not accusative here?


There are a handful of verbs in Greek which don't trigger accusative and this is one of them. They all relate to states of being, and can't take an object. The three most common are είμαι, γίνομαι and υπάρχω. See Troll's comment above for a bit more explanation.

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