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  5. "He ate the whole apple."

"He ate the whole apple."

Translation:Él se comió toda la manzana.

February 7, 2013



Why is the reflexive used here rather than "Él -la- comió..."?


Comerse intensifies the meaning -- he ate the whole thing


Okay, I can understand that. In that case, is the toda necessary? Would it say, "He ate the whole apple" without the toda since comerse intensifies the meaning. Or do we still have to have both words anyway? Thanks for your help.


My guess is that the se emphasis that he did it by himself while toda emphasizes that he ate the own thing. It would be the difference between "he ate it" "he ate it himself" and "he ate it all himself."


Thank you. That makes a lot of sense.


Why is there a 'se' before the 'comió'? In present tense it's "Él come toda la manzana", no?


think of it like he himself ate the whole thing se is used to show that he did it by himself


That is a good way to remember it. We have a similar structure in colloquial English in sentences like:

  1. I'm going to get me some of that cake.
  2. I love me some French fries!

In both cases, the reflexive pronoun intensifies the sentence.


awesome. me like.


You're right. But in English, that is incorrect grammer (l think)


I had to peek at "whole" and I chose entero instead of toda. Why does it say I am wrong?


It could be either toda la manzana or la manzana entera (the entire apple). That is the proper order, and entero would be wrong as it is the masculine version... That said, even though saying "manzana entera" would probably make sense just fine in Spanish, it may not be one of the acceptable answers input by DL.


yeah I put in manzana entera and got it right, your problem must be the masculine ending


i gave entera and was accepted...


Se comió hasta las pepas!


adorable remark ... after i translated --glad to know now how to say SEEDS

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