"He ate the whole apple."
Translation:Él se comió toda la manzana.
Okay, I can understand that. In that case, is the toda necessary? Would it say, "He ate the whole apple" without the toda since comerse intensifies the meaning. Or do we still have to have both words anyway? Thanks for your help.
My guess is that the se emphasis that he did it by himself while toda emphasizes that he ate the own thing. It would be the difference between "he ate it" "he ate it himself" and "he ate it all himself."
Why is there a 'se' before the 'comió'? In present tense it's "Él come toda la manzana", no?
think of it like he himself ate the whole thing se is used to show that he did it by himself
I had to peek at "whole" and I chose entero instead of toda. Why does it say I am wrong?
It could be either toda la manzana or la manzana entera (the entire apple). That is the proper order, and entero would be wrong as it is the masculine version... That said, even though saying "manzana entera" would probably make sense just fine in Spanish, it may not be one of the acceptable answers input by DL.
yeah I put in manzana entera and got it right, your problem must be the masculine ending