Two questions about this sentence:
1) Can we also translate this as: "you will have to sleep tonight."
After all, "deberá" is future tense.
2) Can we also express this sentence (in Spanish) as, "Usted tendrá que dormir esta noche"
I disagree. I believe in this context (always difficult to know I appreciate)the meanings are very different. Obviously the second sentence as you say " Usted tendra que dormir esta noche" means, You will have to sleep tonight.
On the other hand "Debera dormir esta noche" can not automatically be substituted for You will have to sleep tonight, because it means You SHOULD/MUST sleep tonight and they have a different meaning"
We can use future tenses to make PREDICTIONS or ASSUMPTIONS. As I believe is the case here. Eg. " I've been working non stop for twelve hours, I'm exhausted" to which his wife replies, "You SHOULD sleep well tonight" Or, " I have an exam on Wednesday, I'm a bit worried" a friend replies, "You've studied loads, you SHOULD pass no problem" At a bus stop, " Do you think it will be on time?" " It SHOULD BE, I get it every day and its never normally late" etc etc. Again if you insist its possible to use, Must, Ought to, Have (has) to in these examples, " You MUST sleep well tonight", "You OUGHT TO pass the exam" " It has to be on time, its never late"
It also isn't though simply an argument as to how synonymous Must, should, ought to, have to are etc. Yes they can often be interchanged for one another to convey the same meaning with different senses of obligation or politeness etc. However just as we have different words so do they in Spanish. So if it asks you to say HE HAS TO use Tener, if they ask you to say Should, use Deber etc. Why over complicate things with every possible synonym or similar phrase? When you speak in your own time use whatever you prefer!! However if they ask you to translate a specific word then why not just do it?. It's possible to say " I am going to prevent the flow of electricity to the illumination, but I'd probably just say, " I'm going to turn out the light"
Anyway just my thoughts, but I think that sometimes we should think more about how we use our own language before trying to learn or even worse change ( to fit our needs) another one.
Well, judging from the fact that a few minutes ago I ran into this one: "Él deberá encontrar su pasión en la vida." and they accepted "He shall find his passion in life.", I would think deberá meaning "shall" would also be acceptable in this case.
@ "frank479" Yes, "shall" is accepted but you have to say the sentence like this: "You shall have to sleep tonight." (It sounds a little old English but that's how Duolingo accepts the sentence with "shall").
Interesting, because I think "You shall have to sleep tonight" is poor English. "shall" and "have to" mean the same thing so it is redundant.
@Phontistery - then, DL should not have accepted "shall" (by itself) in the previous example I gave.
What is the difference between:
"deberás dormir esta noche" and
"debes dormir esta noche"
is there any nuance between the two, or do they mean the same thing?
What is the difference in English between "you need to sleep tonight" and "you will need to sleep tonight." They seem to mean the same thing to me with a slight emphasis difference in how you view the time frame. I expect it is the same for the Spanish.
You will - future tense, stating, with certainty that something will happen. "You will ___" - you are telling someone what they are going to do. They are probably going to do it.
You need to - is a recommendation that someone do something, almost a command. You are telling them what they need to do. Doesn't mean they'll do it.
In addition adding 'will' shifts when the 'needing' will happen. 'You need...' is now, whereas 'You will need ...' is later, but not necessary now. Imagine you're talking to some one who is about to do some exhausting work - 'will need to sleep', as opposed to someone who already has - 'need to sleep'.
la diferencia es que en la primera oracion la persona que esta diciendo la oracion esta como dando un consejo y en la segunda oracion esta como dadole una orden
I am elated. I could understand you :-D Apart from "dadole", what does it mean? Who knows maybe one day I may be able to speak Spanish! One day!!
I believe it is this, deberás dormir = you should sleep debes dormir = you must sleep
namayani is mostly right: "debes" it's either a command ("you have to sleep tonight") or a suggestion ("you ought to sleep tonight") when you talk about future things, while "deberás" is an order to be complied in the future ("you will sleep tonight" or "you must sleep tonight") just like "debes" is an order to be complied in the present ("debes dormir ahora ")
Thank you! That makes sense now. By the way, are you a native Spanish speaker?
Are you Japanese, "Paraguay-jin"? I spent two months in Paraguay, and volunteered at one of the Japanese schools in Asunción.
I'm not entirely convinced. I don't think using the present tense to refer to future events is grammatically sound in English and I suspect the same would be true in Spanish. One of your points was that the tense indicates at what time a command would be but this is missing the point because regardless of whether you use present or future tense, the time when the command is enacted will be 'tonight' which is in the future. You can't comply with an order in the present if the order refers to future events.
If the event is in the future then only the future tense should be used. As to the strength of the obligation, we know in the present tense deber can range in meaning from ought to to must so I see no reason why the same shouldn't apply in the future, I find it difficult to accept that future tense would imply a lesser degree of obligation or vice versa.
same here. what I'm thinking is this Scenario A: We're talking and you seem really tired and I feel that now the things are such that you must sleep tonight and I say "Debes dormir esta noche." Scenario B: You have a habit of not sleeping at night, but tomorrow we have to do something important so tonight you really must sleep because tomorrow things will be such that it will have been better if you had slept so I say "Deberás dormir esta noche." Or am I not getting this right at all? I googled to learn more about 'deberás' and it provided senteces such as "Si haces lo que no debes, deberás sufrir lo que no mereces" B. Franklin(?) which would imply that "debes" has a connotation of something you must do in general, while 'deberás' is something you have to or only might have to do in the future.
I think there's a simple answer to this overlooked by the other commenters so far. Esta noche is a future event so the future tense should be used in both languages. Therefore I believe that in correct grammar "Debes dormir esta noche" and "You must sleep tonight" are both wrong. The reason I think the main accepted answer uses "must" is because I think it may actually be a conditional form, otherwise it would sound wrong to our ears.
I've read all the answers, but still not satisfied. I think the context matters in this case, because i've read the sentence in a different way: there's a kid that didn't went to bed yesterday, his friends are sleeping over later during the week and tomorrow there's a difficult test in school. So, he must sleep THIS night. I'm sure it is common to say tonight, but can somebody with enough knowledge and experience tell me that 'this night' is against one possible grammatical rule in written or spoken english? The sentences that can be translated alternatively on duolingo are plethora. Cheers. (PS Give us a break. And i want my point back!)
English is pretty simple because we only ever say "tonight", not "this night", to refer to the night immediately approaching.
The problem is that Duolingo has tricked me into translating sentences word by word and as literal as possible, even if the translation might sound unnatural
Who says "this night" in place or "tonight" in English? That sounds very awkward. It is the literally translation but not how English-speaking people would say it. "I'm going to the game this night." No one would ever say that.
Beg to differ. ¨this night¨ is less common than ¨tonight¨ and has an antiquated feel to it, but is perfectly correct English. DL has limits and parsing unusual, though correct, answers is one.
It obviously does matter if you are a native speaker or not, no matter where you are from. English is English. As long as we aren't talking about slang, it's the same language. The language works the same. And 'this night' is obviously fine to say, and actually preferable in some situations, like the Jewish thing, or when the structure of a sentence allows for it ('this' being a modifier of the noun 'night') as opposed to a sentence which looks just for a noun (tonight).
Only 'tonight': What are you doing tonight?
Only 'this night': On this night one year ago my cow jumped over the moon
Either one: This night has been awful Tonight has been awful
I disagree. I am a native speaker of English and no one would EVER say "this night" in place of "tonight" in my country. Perhaps it's used in another English-speaking country. In what English-speaking country have you heard this usage? Yes, someone would understand your meaning but it's not how it's said.
No offense to those who claim to be native speakers each time but it doesn't matter, because language varies regionally so much, that your individual experiences are practically meaningless, unless you will claim to have lived all over US, Britain, New Zealand, Australia, Israel, etc where English is spoken in its various dialects. 'This night' is certainly less common than 'tonight' ...but it's still perfectly correct and could be used for emphasis...."what is so special about this night of all nights?" ....again please refrain from using 'call to authority fallacy', at most you could say that "I am from New York and I am a native speaker, and where I live, that's a rarely or never used turn of phrase.....
Thank you. The number of so-called native English speakers who are demonstrably semi-literate should give everyone pause when reading these comments.
Do you have any Jewish friends? "Why is this night different from all other nights?" is the question asked by the youngest person at a Passover seder.
I believe you if you say you would never express yourself this way. Certainly in the US and Britain this is a normal, though less common, way of saying that. In the US at a bar it might elicit "Waz widda 'this night' jazz? shaddup 'n' have a beer"
yes, native speaker from the US and a former English teacher. If someone said "I will go to the game this night" I would pick up on that as unusual, perhaps someone putting on airs (frontin') or being melodramatic but not wrong or unheard of.
I really don't mean to be argumentative, but I am from the United States, and yes, I would never express myself using "this night" in place of "tonight" in the context above. But neither would anyone else here. I have never heard anyone say "this night" here, and if I did, I would certainly take notice as it is never heard. And it's not a matter of colloquial vs. formal speech. If I may ask, are you a native English speaker and where are you from?
I wrote "You should sleep this night" and it wasn't accepted. Should it be accepted? I reported.
You must (deberá). Still not quite clear why future tense. Is it because "tonight" is in the future as it were?
Yes, if you look at paraguaijin's explaination above, it is explained in more detail.
nah, this is debera' not deberi'a my apologies, my spanish keyboard isnt working, ought is in conditional, this is just future so should is the correct form.
I wrote "You have to sleep tonight", and it wasn't accepted. But surely "You have to sleep tonight" means exactly the same as "You must sleep tonight"?
Gracias, bonbayel. I now see the difference, subtle though it may be. Here's a lingot for you!
I really see no difference between I must and I have to. Do you command yourself? They both denote necessity.
Well.. the meaning is similar, but Spanish has a way of expressing "to have to" (tener que). "You have to sleep tonight"=Tienes que dormir esta noche"
"Debería dormir" is not the same as "tienes que dormir" debería is like something that he or she is supposed to do but "tienes" is like an obligation, yes or yes.
Not necessarily because deber can also mean must, but your point is true because you've compared a conditional verb with an indicative present.
I translated it as 'you have to sleep tonight' and was marked wrong. It said I missed the word 'will'. Ehhh.. I dunno. 'have to' and 'must' are pretty much synonyms so if you need will with one you need it with the other, otherwise it's implied with both. Soo... yeah. I hate you Duolingo. Nah, just kidding. I love you.
In my humble opinion this can translate to "you should sleep this night" as a suggestion and opposition ti other nights... so not in the sile meaning of tonight but slightly different
Hello AriW1977, let's go with your question:
-You will have to sleep this night. = Usted tendrá que dormir esta noche.
-You must sleep tonight. = Usted deberá dormir esta noche.
It's simple to dintinguise them, since they are translations a little bit different.
HTH, if there are questions or mistakes please comment.
Greetings and luck.
I can't believe that I put a double negative in there; this must have been triggered by the fact that not only was I not feeling well when I wrote this, but also because I wrote it in a great rush, being busy with many other tasks. In any event, once I saw your comment, I quickly corrected that embarrassing error that I had made.
Thanks for your answer; even though -- to me, at least -- "must," "have to" and "need to" are essentially equivalent expressions in English, I understand the logic contained within the corresponding Spanish structures. For that, I'd like to thank you for taking the time to provide me with a sound, well-reasoned, correct and clear answer. :-)
Hello AriW1977, Hahaha! That can happen to anyone, no problem, but you're right, I'm a native English speaker and it causes me far too confusion when not being always able to differentiate them completely "Deber = Tener que = Need to/ Must/ have to", I always said that there is no difference between of them, but when I moved into Colombia, People prefers to choose them according to every situation but it's very very different, unlike as I was taught in USA, in Colombia they told me this "Must = Debe - it's an obligation which is demanded by your parents, boss(es), or someone far above you in a range of something either at work, at school, in college" / "Have to" - It's a prohibition at a time of doing something, but everything is mainly in your hands, since if you want, you do it, so you have to make up your mind" - and "Need to = tengo que", but as a minor obligation or something more as a suggestion (the same as "Should/ought to")", ok, anyways, as you are saying they're equivalent sentences.
A particular case is: "I will go to = I'm going to go = Iré a / voy a", they're also equivalent sentences to me, due to it comes to translating the future in English is something very similar though, but I think that Duo doesn't want that we mix the meanings for keeping the fixed grammar. -I removed the suggestion because I don't like to do in public!
Greetings and luck.
Take Care :-) !
A post from kolunyar (way above):
"Two questions about this sentence:
1) Can we also translate this as: 'you will have to sleep tonight.'
"After all, 'deberá' is future tense."
"2) Can we also express this sentence (in Spanish) as, >'Usted tendrá que dormir esta noche'"
"Yes to both :)"
The problem I have with that, Christian is that "must" isn't future tense so it's incorrect to suggest that "deberá" could ever simply translate as "must". I believe this exercise may be grammatically incorrect.
The complication is that "must" used to be the inflected form of the verb (like "could" for "can", "should" for "shall", etc), while these days "must" is generally synonymous with the present tense there are situations where it is used in inflected forms (possibly past, conditional or subjunctive). This is probably done unknowingly by the speaker but "must" doesn't always sound wrong when you use it in a another tense/aspect.
The point of that diversion is that I think "You must sleep tonight" is generally lazy English but the one situation where it could be correct is if the sentence is conditional - "You must sleep tonight" meaning "You would have to sleep tonight".
sigh I would Duo, I really would. But I found this thing called "An Internet Connection" No sleep tonight.
My brain wants to translate this as "You will should sleep tonight" but I know it can't.
To use "should" as an infinitive try substituting it with "be supposed to".
Actually, deberá is future tense, so I think it's misleading when Duolingo says "you must sleep tonight" is acceptable. If they're being sticklers they should stick to their guns
This is very odd. esta-is this and noche is night so why is it not right to say "you must sleep tonight"
It's just not the way it's phrased in English. It's strange because "this evening" is fine.
I'm repeating the question below bc I don't see an answer yet: What is the difference between: "deberás dormir esta noche" and "debes dormir esta noche" is there any nuance between the two, or do they mean the same thing?
I'm wondering about the debes /deberás too. I went looking and found "Si haces lo que no debes, deberás sufrir lo que no mereces". Benjamin Franklin
Well, “If you do what you shouldn't do, then you should suffer what you don't deserve”, but that’s a translation. So I went after the original quote. I never found it. But sure suffered a world of pop-up ads.
Deber + infinitive = should, ought to. Debo estudiar más. Ben Franklin had a lot of talents, but I am not sure if he spoke Spanish. Nothing, however, would surprise me.
Can somebody explain why this sentence can be translated as "you will have to" and also as "you must" but not as "you have to?" Is there a difference between "you must" and "you have to?" I understand why it's future tense and "you will have to" is correct, but "you must" doesn't make a lot of sense to me...
I don't think they should've translated it as "you will have to"... Anyway, the difference between "you must" and "you have to" is the verb, Spanish has an equivalent for both. "Must" would use the verb "deber", while "to have to" would use "tener que".
I agree, I don't think it should be translated as "must", especially since "must" and "have to" are basically equivalent in English.
I'm not a native english speaker, so I wonder if you can say: "You will have to sleep this night". For me it sounds right, but DL didn't accept it...
That's terribly awkward sounding. "This night" might sound okay at the beginning of a sentence, and when used for dramatic effect, such as "This night will live on forever" or "This night will be the night we remember forever." Maybe in response to a question, "Which night, [points to day on calendar] that night?".... "No, this night." But putting "This night" at the end of a sentence sounds strange. We would say "tonight". Again, possibly for the purposes of dramatic effect, like if someone told someone who was working all night on something "You will have to sleep eventually." and that second person responded "I will sleep tomorrow night" and the first someone responded "No, you will have to sleep THIS night."
i can not see the difference between - debes (debes que beber agua ) you should drink water - debias ( debias beber water) you should drink water - deberias ( deberias beber agua ) you should drink water
they are all the same :((((
These moments make me so frustrated with Duolingo! This was my answer: You must sleep this night. They said it is wrong hahah ❤❤❤❤❤❤❤!
You should sleep tonight. After all, the lion's doing it (in the mighty jungle, that is).
but when I enter the translation: You must sleep tonight It was deemed wrong and correction says: you should sleep this evening I think there is quite a difference between evening and the night.....
So what I think so far is that the present indicative of deber (debo, debes, deben, etc.) is used to mean "must," whereas (as I saw in the discussion from an earlier sentence), it means "should" when used in the conditional form of the verb. But now DL is bring in the future tense? so... does both conditional and future indicative mean "should," and if so, are they completely interchangeable? when do you use one over the other?
There is an irrational amount of comments on this sentence even though it is so short...
The answer says evening people do not sleep in the evening they sleep at night
Yo utilicé, "You would need to sleep tonight." Me parece que también es una posible tradución.
What the hell??! In what country does NOCHE mean EVENING?? I've always known the word, "noche" to mean, "night". I was 100% certain I had the translation correct. I was shocked when I read saw that red pop up telling me I'm wrong and why? Bc I translated noche into night. Doesn't anyone else have an issue with this?
"Noche" can mean "evening" or "night." The phrase "esta noche," although commonly understood to mean "tonight," can also mean "this evening." "Buenas noches" can be used as a greeting meaning "Good evening" or as a farewell meaning "Good night."
I wrote you will have to sleep this night and it should not be night but be evening. Since when noche means evening???
Although the most common meaning for "noche" is night (and "está noche" usually means tonight), "noche" can also mean evening. The most familiar example of this is "Buenas noches" which can be used as a greeting meaning good evening and also as a farewell meaning good night.
You ought to sleep this night is marked as wrong answer, it should be evening according to DL, I think that sleeping nighttime would be more common, or at least wrong.
Duo tells me it is "this evening", not "this night". Does the meaning of "noche" change if it is "this"? In which country does that occur?
You don't say "this night" in English, have you ever used it? Regardless "tonight" and the hypothetical "this night" have the same meaning and either would always translate to esta noche.
The way i was thought in school was Present tense can be used as Future tense.
So 'Debe dormir esta noche' is equivalent to 'Deberá dormir esta noche'
Someone correct me if im wrong. But it does make sense to use the future for present because of this --> tonight = esta noche
It has not ocurred, tonight, so the Future tense of Deber is used.
I wrote you must slee tonight and it marked wrong cause it supposed yo be evening. My answer is perfectly correct!
DL does not accept 'this night' as translation for 'esta noche'. only 'tonight' Is this correct.
Hmm, how about 'You will and must sleep tonight", translating the future tense and the meaning of the verb. No? I thought so...
I wrote 'you have to sleep tonight' and was told it was wrong and should have been 'you will have to sleep tonight'. Quite frankly I don't see why my translation wasn't accepted. Surely there is no real difference between 'you must sleep' (the official translation given above), and 'you have to sleep'. Can someone please clarify this for me?
I think Duo should consider "ought to" or "should" sleed here instead of "have to", because they used tener in previous lessons to mean that. Yo tengo ir... etc
You are not going to belive this! Uhh this is how it goes. Alians are invading, They took out the cell tower, The citys on fire, My car runs,but it has two flat tires, We got a pizza problem. I'm at a lose, no sause. ¡To be contined!
usted derives from "vuestra merced", a title that means "your grace" (vuestra is an adjective form of vosotros), so you can see that it definitely is for "you" and not "he".
Actually, 'Usted' is used as 'you' in Spanish (for addressing an important person).