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The use of από for comparison is interesting. There might be an instance of comparative with από (+ genitive) in the Septuagint at Sir 24:29, but even if that is how to understand that verse, it's not a classical Gk construction and might derive from interference from Hebrew comparative min (the Hebrew of that verse is not extant), which is the equivalent preposition (מן, min, "from"). Horrocks (Greek: A History of the Language and Its Speakers) does not indicate when comparative από came into Gk. The spread of the accusative as the default prepositional case happened in Roman Period koine (Horrocks, 180). Does anyone know when comparative από came into Gk?
Starting slowly from Late Antiquity maybe, not easy to define. Maybe you'll find this interesting/helpful.
However, I'm not sure it's correct to limit this change to "comparative από". I think it's part of the changes that started happening at some point, as you mentioned. The number of prepositions slowly decreased and more and more of these -already fewer- prepositions started taking the accusative. I'm not sure it has been possible to (clearly) define the specific change you're asking about.
Those are good point, thanks. The comparative apo construction goes back to the Roman period for sure but I haven't looked into the matter in the papyri. Lampe's Byzantine Patristic Lexicon says the construction is common in the Septuagint but I haven't found that to be the case in the limited amount of time I took to look into the matter. My hunch is that outside influence contributed to this construction, possibly a combination of factors. I don't know Turkish so I can't say whether the Turkish period saw an increase in this construction even if it dates to the Roman period. If it is as common to the Septuagint, maybe the Byzantine church started using the construction in liturgy or readings and it took off from there. My hunch is that it is possible to define this change in rough outline but it would require mastery of modern Greek, the history of the Greek language and its external influences, possibly including Septuagint. I don't get a sense that Horrocks knows Semitic languages well and so his silence on this matter may not be because its unanswerable.
It does accept "He has less food than she." if it wasn't accepted that would mean you had an error somewhere else in the sentence.
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