"The girl likes to eat cheesecakes."
Translation:Του κοριτσιού του αρέσει να τρώει τσίζκεικ.
Τσίζκεικ reads as 'cheesekeek'. Am I right in saying that the correct spelling is «τσίζκεϊκ», with an umlaut?
As it is a foreign word all the following should be acceptable: τσίζκεϊκ, τσιζ κέικ, τσίζκεικ, τσιζκεικ
But grammar isn't suspended just for words of foreign origin. Only τσίζκεϊκ and τσιζ κέικ are acceptable, surely? Formally, anyway. Unless Greeks say 'tseezkeek' when speaking, in which case I'd be wrong.
I've heard people in the countryside pronounce it that way but it definitely doesn't mean it's correct :D
Because αρέσει means something like "be pleasing to" -- the subject is the pleasing object or action. (It's very similar to French "plaire" or Spanish "gustar", if you know those.)
So Το κορίτσι αρέσει would mean "The girl is pleasing (to someone); (someone) likes the girl".
But here, the pleasing thing is the eating cheesecakes and the girl is the one who is pleased by the eating -- this is marked with σε or with genitive.
Hmm... maybe not! It sounds too unnatural to me... I don't think I've ever heard this in Greek.
Yeah impossible. You can't make an intransitive like that into a passive and thereby cause it to change subject assignment. 'It seems to me' ≠ 'I am seemed it' :-)