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"No one has ever called me that."

Translation:Keiner hat mich je so genannt.

February 9, 2013

26 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/BrodyGibbs

So according to the STOMP (subject, time, object, manner, place) guideline, wouldn't "je" qualify as time, and therefore go before "mich," which is the object?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Bob20020

Please explain more about STOMP. I have never heard of that before.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/MsLagerkvist2

You are way ahead of me in level, but I'm going to guess that "ever" modifies "called." (I like STOMP, by the way! I'd only heard of time, manner, place before now.)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/fadamel

I think it's because pronouns (in this case mich) usually come after the verb.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/DianeJoyBa

What a great mnemonic for German word order! Vielen danke!


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/herrbetz

'Niemand' instead of 'Keiner' ist also right here in my opinion.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/lambertsimnel

My answer was corrected to "Niemand hat mich das jemals genannt."


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/lapiak

Je in this case translates to "ever."


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/VaterGut

could 'nie' be used here instead of 'je'?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/herrbetz

That would be a double negative as in 'No one has never called me that'


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/enichts

Is 'so' required?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/A.J.Stephen

Yes, translates 'that'


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/enichts

Now it seems so obvious, thanks :)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/mostlikelyto

Why "keiner"? There is no noun, so why use the masculine article?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/aucunLien

It is also a pronoun. I see it as a short cut of "kein Mensch" type of deal...


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/possum404

Why does the accusative case happen in this sentence? If I remember right, the other examples of "genannt" in this lesson have required the dative case be used (as in "Er hat mir die Nummer genannt" and so forth). What is different about this sentence? Or am I just remembering wrong?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/legX

When "genannt" is "speaking TO sb", you use dative ; when it is "calling someon0e [sthg] ", accusative is good. The verb can have 2 applications.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/TomsFontes

Why must we use "mich" instead of "mir"? Shouldn't it be dative case, once it is an indirect object? No one has ever called: what?-that (direct object); whom? -me (indirect object)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/lapiak

I believe that both are accusative as in "that" and "me" are the same direct object.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/finn.claw

How about niemand hast dass nie mir genannt


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/zealouscrow

that would mean "no one had never called me that."


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/patphez

Why not "noch niemand hat mich so genannt"


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/laweesh

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