"No one has ever called me that."

Translation:Keiner hat mich je so genannt.

6 years ago

25 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/BrodyGibbs

So according to the STOMP (subject, time, object, manner, place) guideline, wouldn't "je" qualify as time, and therefore go before "mich," which is the object?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Bob20020
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Please explain more about STOMP. I have never heard of that before.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MsLagerkvist2
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You are way ahead of me in level, but I'm going to guess that "ever" modifies "called." (I like STOMP, by the way! I'd only heard of time, manner, place before now.)

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/fadamel

I think it's because pronouns (in this case mich) usually come after the verb.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/herrbetz
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'Niemand' instead of 'Keiner' ist also right here in my opinion.

6 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lambertsimnel
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My answer was corrected to "Niemand hat mich das jemals genannt."

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/VaterGut

could 'nie' be used here instead of 'je'?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/herrbetz
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That would be a double negative as in 'No one has never called me that'

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/enichts
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Is 'so' required?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/A.J.Stephen

Yes, translates 'that'

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/enichts
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Now it seems so obvious, thanks :)

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Manny4us
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But why?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mostlikelyto

Why "keiner"? There is no noun, so why use the masculine article?

6 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/aucunLien
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It is also a pronoun. I see it as a short cut of "kein Mensch" type of deal...

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/possum404
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Why does the accusative case happen in this sentence? If I remember right, the other examples of "genannt" in this lesson have required the dative case be used (as in "Er hat mir die Nummer genannt" and so forth). What is different about this sentence? Or am I just remembering wrong?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/legX
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When "genannt" is "speaking TO sb", you use dative ; when it is "calling someon0e [sthg] ", accusative is good. The verb can have 2 applications.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DanyDin
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Je meaning?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lapiak
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Je in this case translates to "ever."

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/finn.claw

How about niemand hast dass nie mir genannt

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/zealouscrow

that would mean "no one had never called me that."

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/patphez
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Why not "noch niemand hat mich so genannt"

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/TomsFontes
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Why must we use "mich" instead of "mir"? Shouldn't it be dative case, once it is an indirect object? No one has ever called: what?-that (direct object); whom? -me (indirect object)

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lapiak
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I believe that both are accusative as in "that" and "me" are the same direct object.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/chris975756

Sup kids

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/laweesh

❤❤❤❤❤❤❤❤

4 years ago
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