"I do not swim, but I run."
Translation:Nem úszom, hanem futok.
Why is swim in the definite conjugation, while run is in the indefinite? Is there a rule here? It seems they should both be indefinite...
Okay, thanks. But that begs the question, why can úsz be both definite and indefinite, while fut cannot? Aren't they essentially the same kind of verb?
The definite and indefinite forms of "úsz..." happen to be the same, in the first person singular only. Because it is an "ik" verb.
"Fut" is not an "ik" verb, it has different forms for the definite and the indefinite in the first person singular.