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  5. "I have not seen my father fo…

"I have not seen my father for a year."

Translation:Yo no he visto a mi padre por un año.

February 10, 2013



man... I was so proud of myself for finally remembering the personal "a" and then I went and used "para" instead of "por".....


So why not "desde hace un año"? - since one year ago, which in other phrases Duo accepts "for a year"


Similarly, I used "hace un año" and it was not accepted. Perhaps because the English was not "it's been a year since..."?


Why is there no "lo" as a direct object for "mi padre"?


Because padre comes after the verb and is a regular direct object. If you had said the sentence in reverse: i.e. A mi padre, no lo he visto... This sentence would need to be in context, and used for emphasis, eg: I saw my mother yesterday, but my father, I haven't seen him for a year.


That's my question too.


why not durante un año?


Because you haven't seen him since a year ago, which is not quite the same as 'during a year', I would suppose.


I have a terrific little grammar text that says to use "por" in expressions of time, e.g., por la mañana (in the morning), por la noche (at night), por dos años (for two years), por mucho tiempo (for a long time).


I always confuse "por" and "para". So you're saying that "por" is for time and "para" is for everything else?


No, not everything else, not by a long shot. Check this out: http://www.studyspanish.com/lessons/porpara.htm There's also a para/por section in "Spanish Verbs and Essentials of Grammar," by Ina W. Ramboz, which you can find on Amazon for about 8 bucks.


Por is always used for money too. This is very useful to know.


I'm so bad at remembering to include the "a" ("a mi padre") :-/

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