"I do not swim, but run."

Translation:Nem úszom, hanem futok.

November 9, 2016

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Why does one verb end in -om and the other in -ok? I don't see any definite objects. Is this an -ik verb situation?


Yes, you guessed it, "úszom" is the first person singular of an "-ik" verb. So, no object but still an "-m".


Hi vvsey, can you please explain this "-ik verb situation" a bit more? When I go to Google translate and type in "I don't swim" I get "Nem úszom" but when I type in "I swim" I get "úszok". Is that not correct? Does the negation change the way the word is conjugated? I'm confused.


GT is wrong.

For -ik verbs the first person singular present indicative always ends in an 'm' - whether it is definite or indefinite. Negation does not change endings!

In casual speech you will hear a difference - but it makes you sound like a hick.


It would be better "úszok" because there is no subject in the sentence.


No - the correct indefinite first person conjugation of úszik is úszom (úszok is considered uneducated or hick).


So funny to recognize the word foot in "to run"


Perhaps it is the Latin root for "fugit" (to flee) which is to be extracted from "futni", not the Germanic "foot".


Actually no. It has ancient Uralic roots.


It's likely neither - Hungarian is barely related to any European languages. Especially with verbs that have been around a while, there isn't likely any real connection, just false cognates.

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