"A tanár az iskolában a gyerekekhez beszél."

Translation:The teacher talks to the children in the school.

November 11, 2016

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Simply a point of clarification. I answered this "The teacher talks to the children in the school". I think I understand why it was marked wrong - it depends on where "az iskolában" appears in the sentence. My answer has a subtle difference in English as well:

The teacher talks to the children in the school - emphasizes where the teacher is speaking to the children.

The teacher in the school talks to the children - emphasizes which teacher is talking to the children (implicitly indicating that there is more than one teacher being discussed).

Would the same difference be indicated between:

A tanár a gyerekekhez beszél az iskolában.

A tanár az iskolában a gyerekekhez beszél.


No, it would not be done like that. Hungarian would use a structure that is literally something like "the in-the-school-being teacher/children":
"az iskolában lévő tanár" - the teacher being in the school
"az iskolában lévő gyerekek" - the children being in the school

And, if you wanted to emphasize that you are talking about a specific teacher, you would also modify the word order to place that in front of the verb:
"Az iskolában lévő tanár beszél a gyerekekhez." - It is the teacher in the school who talks to the children. Which teacher? The one in the school.
If that emphasis is not needed, then you can stay with:
"Az iskolában lévő tanár a gyerekekhez beszél." - The teacher, who happens to be in the school, talks to the children.


This is unnatural in English, it should be "The teacher talks to the kids at the school." or "The teacher talks to the kids at school."


Yes, it should say "at school", not in the school. I am still waiting for the program to get up to speed


In the Hungarian, why is "az iskolaban" placed between the teacher and the children. I'd have thought that it would be better as the topic (at the start) or relegated to the end of the sentence. Where it's positioned, it seems to be giving the location of the teacher, which is hardly likely to be different to that of the children to whom she is talking (or have I overlooked the impact of COVID-19?). Could this be a way of saying "the school teacher"?


I translated this as "the teacher talks to the children in the school" but my translation was marked wrong. Should I report this?


This is now the main answer!


Nope. As per the discussion, that is a different sentence in Hungarian.


why not dative here a gyerekeknek


That is an interesting question. But that is just how it is. When "I am talking/speaking to you", that is "hozzád beszélek". When "I am speaking/talking to you about Hungarian grammar", that is "beszélek neked a magyar nyelvtanról".
These speak-related verbs can be a bit confusing anyway, on both sides, because there is no one-to-one match. On one side we have "speak", "talk", "tell", on the other we have "beszél" and "mond". (Of course there are more but these are the main ones.) You have to actively know and understand the various scenarios in your own language to be able to correctly match them to the corresponding usage in the other language.


its crazy how this concept is identical in polish (but not in slovak or czech(!)). it is 1:1 the same, and works for many other constructs with coverb+case. In Poland people also speak TO(towards) someone, but if they speak about something to someone, they use dativ.


How do I say that the teacher is talking about the children rather than to them? Would that be gyerekeknél?


No. "A gyerekekről".


Thank you again, vvsey! You are such a lot of help!

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