For the non-native speakers: one could equivalently say here: "It has ceased raining", or "It has ceased to rain". However, "It has stopped to rain" doesn't sound right; it sounds along the lines of the structure "He has stopped (on his journey) to pick up milk" and would be confusing.
It stopped raining. That's how we speak in English. Is it grammatically correct? I don't know and i don't care. This is how we speak.the "Actions speak louder than words" in Spanish mentions el viento "the wind" why? Because that's how they say it in Spanish. "It stopped raining" should be correct.
I used the almost literal translation "Ït has left off raining". Although it was not accepted, it should be. Charles Dickens says so. A quote from Bleak House "It has left off raining down in Lincolnshire at last, and Chesney Wold has taken heart." I think the phrase was quite common in Victorian and Edwardian English because I seem to remember it being used a lot in many of the old adventure stories.
My point was really related to the fact that DL offers "leak" in the drop down for "llover". I checked it earlier and could not find it elsewhere. I just had to try it to see what would happen and it was counted wrong. Why would they offer this choice if it is not acceptable? I was wondering if it may be idiomatic.
The drop-down hints are often misleading or completely wrong. It's like any game show where there are multiple choice options - some are right, one is really right, some are totally wrong.
It's best not to use the drop-down menu at all - use WordReference or SpanishDict online, or keep a paper dictionary nearby
If you look further up, this has been answered before. They do not mean the same thing as they are in different tenses, and this lesson is about learning the present perfect, your alternative is in the preterite.
For example: "Yesterday at noon it stopped raining" (preterite); "look outside, it has stopped raining" (present perfect). You cannot switch the "has" between those sentences.
Oh, so sorry - and I misspelled your name, too -- my bad! I thought you were doing like so many do, and arguing for Duo to accept the contraction for "it has," just because it is correct use in English. It finally accepts the contraction for "It is," but I think Duo wants to keep the difference plain because of the present perfect, to make people understand that "is" wouldn't be correct. Of course you are perfectly correct that people use that contraction in English most of the time; we speak in "short form" instead of formal English, and diction is not emphasized as it used to be - very sloppy speech patterns, for sure, but convenient. Regards.
This is quite complicated in English, although you can say "it started to rain" you cannot say "it ceased to rain". In general, if you are not sure, it is far safer to use verb + ING for constructs like this. It started raining and it ceased raining both sound natural and are correct.
In more detail, if you use "cease", "stop", "finish", etc., there is a difference between using the participle and the infinitive. Using the infinitive implies "in order to". For example "She stopped reading" means she was reading, and she stopped. "She stopped to read" means she was doing something else, perhaps walking along, and she stopped in order to read.
This is why "it ceased to rain" does not make any sense. "It" is not a subject, "it" was not doing something, "it" just refers to a general state of raining or not raining.
It's a lot easier in Spanish!
The "de" is absolutely necessary in this sentence because it changes the meaning of the verb. "Dejar" which has a simple definition of "to leave, let, allow" means "to stop, quit" when it is followed by "de."
Tricky, huh? Yes, but there are several of these verb + preposition culprits lurking in the Spanish language which change the meaning of the verb from slightly to drastically. A few that come to mind are: "acabar de" - to have just _ed; "contar con" - to count on; "estar para" - to be about to (and other meanings); "tener que" - to have to; "tratar de" - to try to; and many, many others. The link below should help a bit. I suppose the lesson here is to thoroughly read the definition of a new verb and be careful when translating a verb + preposition combination that doesn't really seem to make sense.
Hola Tom. Yes, "lo" can mean "it," but the sentence: "Lo ha dejado de llover" would be wrong. Although, if someone said: "Ha dejado de llover," you might reply: "Sí, lo ha." Confusing? You might want to review the uses of "lo":
If you examine Duo's sentence, you'll notice that it does not have a subject (as a matter of fact, this sentence doesn't even have a noun!). There are many sentences like that in the exercises. What we have to do in these cases is to consider the possible subject pronouns according to the verb. "Ha" is the third person singular, with the possibilities of he, she, you or it. Since he, she, and you create nonsensical sentences, the only reasonable choice is "IT."
Hope this helps more than it confuses! :-))
"It had stopped to rain" is still being shown as the correct answer despite being almost meaningless in English. It begs an active subject and a rare context like "Why had the cloud stopped floating?" to make any sense at all, and even then "It had stopped in order to rain" would be better English. DuoLingo really need to remove that as an answer.
Of course I cannot see the page you are accessing but, if it does say "It had stopped to rain," it is not only an ugly English translation but also incorrect ("ha" means "has," not "had"). You should report it. The page I am looking at, however, shows the translation as "It has stopped raining," which is perfectly good English and correct.