"Gazdagok, híresek és senki sem áll őfölöttük."

Translation:They are rich, famous and nobody stands above them.

November 19, 2016

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I would say 'They are rich and famous and nobody stands. ..' 'They are rich, famous and happy ' would be ok for the first clause, but 'They are rich, famous ' is wrong


Oh, I get this. In the plural like that, they could hardly be anything but predicate adjectives, i.e., [they are] rich, [they are] famous.


I didn't understand the sentence at all, without an Ök at the beginning. And why is SEM in the Hungarian sentence and NOT in the English?


For a learner it might be hard to understand without the subject, but in Hungarian we often leave it out because it is obvious from the form of the verb, adjective, etc.

When you have a negative sentence in English which contains the "any-" words, or an affirmative that contains the "no-" words, you use these Hungarian words for it:

anybody/nobody = senki sem

anything/nothing = semmi sem

anywhere/nowhere = sehol sem

Notice how these words are formed: se(n) + ki (who?); se(m) + mi (what?); se + hol (where?).

You can conjugate these words as required (senkit, semmivel, sehonnan) and then add "sem" - senkit sem, semmivel sem...

These words can be any part of the sentence, just like in English:

Nobody loves me. = Senki sem szeret (engem).

I'm not going with anybody. = (Én) Senkivel sem megyek.

I don't love anybody. = (Én) Senkit sem szeretek.


Thank you very much!


You're welcome!

And you can also use "se" or "nem" instead of "sem".

Other uses of se/sem:

  • I don't like apples. - I don't either. = (Én) Nem szeretem az almát. - Én se(m).

  • I don't have neither a cat nor a dog. = (Nekem) Se macskám, se kutyám nincs.


How do you know when to use "sem" "se" or "nem"?


In your everyday indicative sentences, you use nem and sem. Nem for a simple negation, sem as a variant of "is nem", meaning "not... either".
If you use them together with negating pronouns - soha, semmi, semelyik and so on - they are pretty much identical.

Ne and se have the same relation, but they are used in imperative sentences: "Ne beszélj!" - "Don't speak!"

I reckon that HetaLilla using se in an indicative sentences is a bit more colloquial in the first example, but in the second example "se ... se" actually means "neither... nor".


This sentence makes no sense in English. .. I am suspicious of the Hungarian too...


"They are rich, they are famous, and nobody stands/is above them." Like, they are at the very top. The commoners' rules don't apply to them. That mindset is what this sentence wants to communicate.

The Hungarian sentence is pretty alright.


Answer is not correct English


I think this sentence would be a lot clearer with the simple addition of ők at the begininng...


Maybe, but it is really not necessary.


'They are rich, famous and nobody stands....' is given as the correct answer but it is not correct English


Robert, what's incorrect about the sentence? What would you say instead?


Never say: őfölöttük. Only simply: fölöttük


Don't forget: ... senki sem áll fölöttük. Without Ő!


That translation sounds like a foreigner speaking English, it is not natural. Is it an idiom meaning nobody is superior to them?

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