Should there be a difference between “ng” and “ngh” at the end of the syllable? The recording sounds voiced to me.
I think AbunPang's question was because of the "h" - isn't "ngh" voiceless?
The careful pronunciation of this would be [ˈɛŋr̥(ʰ)ai̯ft] i.e. as if it was "eng-rhaifft" with a voiced ng and unvoiced r.
However there's a kind of rule that Welsh speakers don't like pronouncing h [h] or [ʰ] straight after a stressed syllable, so it's usually said [ˈɛŋrai̯ft] as if it was "eng-raifft".