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"I saw you once at my uncle's house."

Translation:Te vi una vez en la casa de mi tío.

5 years ago

15 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/mark_dal_bianco

why would it not be a la casa... instead of en la casa? this keeps coming up for me where it seems to change between 'a' and 'en' to me 'at' a place.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/tessbee

mark: a la casa would mean "to the house, whereas en la casa means "at the house".

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mattmoran

I don't know if this is a duolingo mistake or if I'm just missing something. Why is this wrong?: Una vez te vi en la casa de mi tio.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/RaviOnline

There's a subtle difference between "I saw you there once" and "Once I saw you there." You would use "once" at the front if you had another clause coming like, "Once I saw him there, I left," or, "I left once I saw him there."

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/FrankFox0

These fine distinctions are too fine by half.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/RaviOnline

Yes the difference is subtle but it's there. When you have once at the end, the sentence sounds complete. If you mix the two, "I saw you there once, I tried to call you," it sounds very awkward.

At the beginning, "once" begs for another clause. For e.g., "I tried to call you once I saw you there." Instead of indicating a number here, "once" at the front carries a meaning close to "as soon as."

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/FrankFox0

@RaviOnline: Thank you for your thoughtful comment.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/skyfish

I have the same question.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DannyShuma

Me also

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ReyGato
ReyGato
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Could you say "Te vi en la casa de mi tío una vez" as well or would it have to be "Te vi una vez en la casa de mi tío"?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/zorraprimera

Me to

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/will.burke

Me too

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MilliMonaire

It says the following sentences are both correct: 1 - Los vi a ustedes una vez en la casa de mi tío. 2 - Te vi una vez en la casa de mi tío.

My question is - why does the the first translation have a personal "a", whereas the second translation doesn't? Could the first one also be "Ustedes vi una vez en la casa de mi tío" and could the second one be "Lo vi a ti una vez en la casa de mi tío" ?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/RaviOnline

Think of the first translation as "Los vi (a ustedes) una vez..." i.e. "los" is the mandatory direct object pronoun (which could mean them or you plural) and "a ustedes" is the optional redundant pronoun phrase that clarifies that "los" here means "you" (plural). Hence, it can't be "Ustedes vi una vez..." because "ustedes" (a subject pronoun) is not a direct object pronoun, "los/las" is. Note: Do not think of this as using a "personal a." All the Spanish articles I've gone through refer to it as a prepositional pronoun phrase.

In the second translation, "te" is not ambiguous like "los" above. It always means "you" (familiar) and so "a ti" isn't required at all as there's no confusion there. However, if you add it nonetheless, it's not incorrect and would just mean an added emphasis on "you." For example, if you said you saw me at.. but I reply, "No, I wasn't there," you could say, "No, I saw youuuuuu at..." That's what "a ti" would do.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MilliMonaire

Thanks! For some reason, I didn't see this any sooner... Nonetheless, I appreciate you for taking the time to respond! <3

8 months ago