"Fructele lor sunt dulci."
Translation:Their fruit are sweet.
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So, "Fructe" = fruit and "Fructele" = the fruit. But, when followed by "lor", "Fructele" = "Fructe"? What kind of nonsense is that? (I confirmed it with my Romanian partner, she said that's just how it is. But I can't accept this lack of logic. I just spent at entire section adding 'the' to words I've already learned. And now you're telling me that even though I'm hearing 'the' variant, I'm just supposed to pretended you said a different version of the word? Madness.)
It makes sense and sounds completely natural if you know and understand the language.
'Fructele lor' translated to English sort of means 'the fruit of theirs' or 'the fruit they own' but when saying that statement in English its simpler and more conventional to say 'their fruit'.
So in Romanian it does have a 'the' in it, however, the only reason you don't put a 'the' when you answer is because your answer is IN ENGLISH, and you wouldn't put a 'the' in that context in English.
These are two completely different languages, so there will be differences.
BTW, Romanian is WAY WAY WAY more logical than English. Romanian has a structure and actually FOLLOWS that structure, unlike English (and I'm saying this even though English is my primary language, but I recognize the shortcomings of English).
Why do we still need the word 'the' in this sentence in Romanian? I'm just struggling to understand why you would be effectively saying a sentence like "their the fruit are sweet". I speak other Latin rooted languages (Sp, Fr and It) and none of them do this, so I am struggling to get my head around this rule and remember it properly. Any advice greatly appreciated!!! Thanks!
FWIW, Italian does something similar doesn't it?: 'Il loro frutto è dolce'[singular in Italian] I find it curious that a similar structure should have evolved in both Italian and Romanian which are separated by some distance but not in French or Spanish/Portuguese which are almost next door.