"Fructele lor sunt dulci."

Translation:Their fruit are sweet.

December 2, 2016

17 Comments
This discussion is locked.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/mickeymouse1955

Shouldn't it be 'Their fruits are sweet.' or Their fruit is sweet.'?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Izzie_gal

Yup. Or: "Their fruit is sweet". (Native speaker and English teacher)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/gustawsohn

My answer ”Their fruits are sweet” was correct.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Fuzzytutor

Yes that is what it should be in english :)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Marcel255901

In English Fruit is like the word Sheep, it is also plural, so the correct translation should be 'Their fruit is sweet' Ocassionally Fruits is used as in 'Fruits of the forest' but 'a bowl of fruit' is plural.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/BobGeorge3

How interesting. Fruit and sheep are not completely the same in English Do you have a sheep? Do you have sheep? Do you have a fruit? Do you have fruit?so far the same But you can also say Do you have fruits? Meaning both plural and more than one type of fruit


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Abdurrahimi

Duolingo make mistakes


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Carlismile

i got this correct by putting, their fruits are sweet, but at the bottom on 'another correct solution' is says, "their fruit are sweet"


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/u8IpuKI2

Pkease have this reviewed by a native English speaker.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Dl61t

Subject verb agreement issue. Fruit is singular, are is plural.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Jon91763

So, "Fructe" = fruit and "Fructele" = the fruit. But, when followed by "lor", "Fructele" = "Fructe"? What kind of nonsense is that? (I confirmed it with my Romanian partner, she said that's just how it is. But I can't accept this lack of logic. I just spent at entire section adding 'the' to words I've already learned. And now you're telling me that even though I'm hearing 'the' variant, I'm just supposed to pretended you said a different version of the word? Madness.)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/This0ldMan

It makes sense and sounds completely natural if you know and understand the language.

'Fructele lor' translated to English sort of means 'the fruit of theirs' or 'the fruit they own' but when saying that statement in English its simpler and more conventional to say 'their fruit'.

So in Romanian it does have a 'the' in it, however, the only reason you don't put a 'the' when you answer is because your answer is IN ENGLISH, and you wouldn't put a 'the' in that context in English.

These are two completely different languages, so there will be differences.

BTW, Romanian is WAY WAY WAY more logical than English. Romanian has a structure and actually FOLLOWS that structure, unlike English (and I'm saying this even though English is my primary language, but I recognize the shortcomings of English).


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/rilianxi

the "le" ending means it's a definite fruit, and it IS definite, because it's the one belonging to them. it is the fruit of theirs.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Jacqui883652

Why do we still need the word 'the' in this sentence in Romanian? I'm just struggling to understand why you would be effectively saying a sentence like "their the fruit are sweet". I speak other Latin rooted languages (Sp, Fr and It) and none of them do this, so I am struggling to get my head around this rule and remember it properly. Any advice greatly appreciated!!! Thanks!


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Paul387206

FWIW, Italian does something similar doesn't it?: 'Il loro frutto è dolce'[singular in Italian] I find it curious that a similar structure should have evolved in both Italian and Romanian which are separated by some distance but not in French or Spanish/Portuguese which are almost next door.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/186.Eb4to1LJgnhF

Portuguese: "a fruta deles" = the fruit their (of them)

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