"Ella nos culpa."
Translation:She blames us.
There is no such word as "culpanos." If you meant "culpamos," that's "we blame," not "blames us."
I see where he is going with this though. You can say ”puedo verte” ”I can see you” where ver and te is conjoined” not sure with this one though.
Good catch. I hadn't considered it as a pronoun suffix rather than just a conjugation of "culpar." As I understand it, the typical cases to affix an object pronoun to the verb are in the infinitive, the gerund, and the positive imperative. I don't think you'd normally do it with the indicative mode (which we have here).
Cab you explain a little more on the gerund, positive imperative, indicative mode. What are they exactly?I want to compare them with what I already know.
Sure. I'll use "culpar" as an example throughout.
The gerund is the verb form that renders it into a noun. In both Spanish and English, the same form is used for the present participle (expressing continuous action). In English "blame" becomes "blaming," and in Spanish, "culpar" becomes "culpando."
The positive imperative is used to give commands to take action (as opposed to commands not to). (Tú) culpa, (usted) culpe, (ustedes) culpen.
The indicative mode is the form of the verb that represents fact. So it's the most commonly-used form of the verb. "Yo culpo, tú culpas," etc.
To the extent that there are synonyms, "accuse" and "blame" are not synonyms. One can accuse without blaming, and vice versa. They simply mean different things. An accusation is a declaration, whereas blame is merely an opinion. They are as different as "think" and "say."
Just a question I have because I am struggling TREMENDOUSLY with this part, why is it so out of order? Like, why is it "Ella nos culpa," and not "Ella culpa nos?" The original order of the sentence is translated to: "She us blames." And since it is like this, how is it supposed to be ordered for more complex sentences like "She takes our drinks to the bartender."?
"Nos" comes before "culpa" here because it's a pronoun. Object (not subject) pronouns in Spanish come before their verbs, while object nouns and prepositional phrases come after.
So "She takes our drinks to the bartender" would be (if I'm not mistaken) "Ella lleva nuestras bebidas al barman," but "She takes them to the bartender" would be "Ella las lleva al barman."
Wait so whats the point of nos llos las , is it just simplfied ways of saying nostros nuestro them and he/she n such
They're the versions of the pronouns you use for verb objects, as opposed to sentence subjects (the third person pronouns are also different for "direct" and "indirect" verb objects).
Normally, you'd only say "she does blame us" for emphasis in contrast with a negative. E.g. "She doesn't blame us, does she?" "She does blame us." I don't know what the Spanish equivalent of this kind of emphatic function would be.