"He has hatred."
Translation:Αυτός έχει μίσος.
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Is this a Greek way of saying: "He hates"? Normally, would you say "He has hatred of something" (a wrong decision for example) ?? So does "Αυτός έχει μίσοςn για λανθασμένη απόφαση." make sense??
This sentence seems a bit awkward to me. I've never heard someone say "He has hatred of something" in English (and I can't quite help with the english part, since I'm not a native English speaker), nor "Αυτός έχει μίσος για κάτι." Other sentences are more common, like:
He hates spiders. - (Αυτός) Μισεί τις αράχνες.
He hates (on) you - (Αυτός σε μισεί)
He has feelings of hatred for you -(Αυτός) έχει/τρέφει αισθήματα μίσους για σένα.
The overwhelming feeling of hatred - Το αφόρητο αίσθημα του μίσους.
Because to be honest, Αυτός έχει μίσος all by itself just doesn't seem or sound right to me. xP
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Thanks for that. As for the English: "He has a hatred…." (for something) gets more than a million hits on Google, so I think it is fairly common. "He has hatred", not so much, but it has recently been reported that Donald Trump said "Ted Cruz …. has hatred for New York". see for example https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=PiTn2db3kUo.
Yes, "he has a hatred for" is common, but if "he has hatred for" is used too (even if not that common), we should've at least added for (something) so that the sentence makes perfect sense. ^.^
I think 'he has hatred in his heart' would be a fairly common usage of 'he has hatred...'
Otherwise, I can't really think of another common formulation in English which doesn't use the indefinite article.
So yes, I think the sentence could do with a bit of tweaking.
Έχει μίσος μέσα του is fairly common in Greek, as an emphasis that he hates most people/things. Στην καρδιά του sounds poetic in Greek, is it the same in English?
Yes, very much so! You'd never see it in formal or technical writing or hear it on a news broadcast.
However, it's common in speech, and you will hear it in song lyrics, and you will most definitely come across it in poetry and literature.
Έχει μίσος μέσα του - that's a nice turn of phrase, I'll have to try and remember that ;-)
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I'm looking at a Gerund in this module as using the sentence with an "ing" ending to each verb. In this case, "He is hating" would fit that example, "Είναι μισεί". Is that correct?
The -ing ending in English is used for two things, which used to be separate but are both -ing in modern standard English.
The gerund acts like a noun, something like "the act of [doing a particular verb]", as in "Smoking is harmful" or "Swimming is fun" or "I like ironing".
The present participle is more verb-like and is used to form continuous tenses such as "He is hating" or "I was swimming"; it's also used as an adverb, as in "He came into the room whistling".
Greek has no continuous tenses, and Είναι μισεί makes no sense.
Έχει μισήσει could work = He has hated. This forms the present perfect tense, which is some form of "have" in English + past participle (usually in -ed), and some form of έχω in Greek + απαρέμφατο (which looks like the third person singular aorist subjunctive, the form used e.g. to form the future).
It is. All neuter nouns have the same accusative form as in nominative. Nom:Το μίσος/Gen:του μίσους/Acc:το μίσος.
Most words in -ος are indeed masculine, but some are neuter and some are feminine.
An interesting pair is ο τοίχος and το τείχος -- the words are pronounced the same and even have a similar meaning (basically, "wall"), but have different genders.
And in the plural, οι τοίχοι and τα τείχη sound the same as feminine singular η τύχη....
