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  5. "Mi tío y mi padre bebían jug…

"Mi tío y mi padre bebían jugo de naranja ese día."

Translation:My uncle and my father were drinking orange juice that day.

February 15, 2013



"drank" and "were drinking" are surely interchangeable in this phrase


There is a distinction in the two "paste tenses" of Spanish. bebian is imperfect, used to describe an ongoing activity like "were drinking" and the preterite ( "bebieron") is used for a completed act like "drank"


I think I may be starting to get the distinction between these tenses in Spanish. If I say "bebieron", it would be in a sentence like: "They drank orange juice, ate their breakfast and went out to chop wood". The drinking of the orange juice was all finished and they went on to other things. However, if I say "bebían" it would be in a sentence like: "They were drinking orange juice that day when in comes a gorilla." Does this make sense or do I have more work to do to understand this? Thanks.


That is how I understand it. "Bebian" instead of "bebieron" would only be correct if it were setting the stage for something else that happened. Otherwise, it's over and done with so should be bebieron.


I think your right here for the most part - but because there is "ese dia" on the end of this phrase, wouldn't that call for the preterite? because it's not an ongoing or habitual action, it just happened once that day?


I think it means that they were drinking over a period of time on that day. That's the sense that is being communicated as opposed to a moment in time.


You know, hesolomon, I actually find the correct use of the imperfect vs. the preterite to be more subtle than the correct choice of ser or estar. And there are a few verbs whose meaning actually change when used in each tense (saber is the one I know, but I bet there are a few more). But as Jamesw points out below the addition of ese día is important.


I see. You're right.


That's not correct. Your explanation of the past tense in Spanish is correct, but the imperfect does not translate to was + ing in English. What is translated to "was drinking" is "Estaba bebiendo".


By including ese día at the end of the statement, I thought you would use bebieron since they drank that day, which seems to be a specific amount of time?


Unless the Spanish narrative uses the imperfect tense.


The imperfect past can also be translated as were drinking. Both imperfect and estar + gerund could be used here.


"... and that's when everything started to go wrong."


Why not "zumo"? Or is this course strictly LA spanish?


Zumo is a word used in Spain for juice. Perhaps they use the same word in LA too?


Latin American Spanish seems largely to use jugo = juice.


My answer was incorrect for not including "My" in front of both uncle and father. Is this strictly necessary in Spanish to always include the possessive pronoun in front of a noun? I feel that it´s almost redundant in English.


Duo, please learn idiomatic English! We don't need the second "my" in English to have a correct sentence.


my uncle and my father used to drink orange juice that day. I got this marked as correct, then I hurried to this discussion blog to hear the fireworks. LOL


Why isn't this preterite?


I thought I heard "ESTE día".


The word "uncle" wasn't provided as a choice!


Ahhh, good memories, good times...


Por supuesto, ellos mezclaron un poco de Vodka.


Is it only me that thinks she is saying FEVIAN not Bebian


For me the audio clearly says "esta día" but the text says "ese día". "that day" was the correct answer.

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