"The girl likes to eat cheesecake."

Translation:Του κοριτσιού του αρέσει να τρώει τσίζκεικ.

December 15, 2016

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I do not understand this translation at all. One of the 'του' is for the genitive, but what about the other? But what is the other for? Also, why is the genitive being used at all? WHat is the girl belonging to? Can someone explain it to me?


του κοριτσιού is article + noun (both in the genitive case). The next του is the personal pronoun, in the genitive case.

A literal translation might be "To the girl, to her it is pleasing that she eats cheesecake"; a slightly less literal one, "The girl, she likes to eat cheesecake".

I'm not sure whether the second του is necessary but it sounds better to me that way.

Or you could rearrange the sentence and use a preposition + accusative case instead of the genitive case: Αρέσει στο κορίτσι να τρώει τσίζκεϊκ.

Ancient Greek used to have a dative case; as in some other European languages (e.g. Latin or German), the dative was used for recipients of giving and also for more metaphorical "recipients" of feelings as here (she likes the cheesecake = the cheesecake gives 'good feelings' to her).

When the dative case was lost, the genitive case took over some of these uses in modern Greek -- especially in personal pronouns.

With nouns, I think it's more common to use σε + accusative to render the old dative, but plain genitive is also often possible.

So the genitive case is not only about possession, but can also be used for a recipient, and that's more or less what is happening in this sentence.

(There are also other uses of the genitive case, e.g. after certain prepositions.)


Can one assume that the dative case markers in Modern Greek happen to be exactly the same as the genitive case markers? Thinking of the "genitive" markers like μου, σου, του etc. as associtated with indirect objects (as in "μου έδωσε το βιβλίο") actually appears rather strange to me.



There are no dative case markers in Modern Greek because Modern Greek has no dative case, except in some fossilised expressions retained from Ancient Greek, e.g. Δόξα τω Θεώ "Praise (be) to God" or συν Αθηνά και χείρα κίνει "God helps those who help themselves" or τοις εκατό "percent".


Sort of, but no. Modern Greek has no dative case, but that's because early sound changes rendered the dative indistinguishable from the accusative (καλῷ and καλόν both sound like "kaló"), so the dative functions got redistributed to other cases. In some dialects it merged with the accusative, but in standard modern Greek its functions were taken over by the genitive, probably because the accusative was overburdened already.


Can you also use "να φάει" for "he/she eats"?


Correct translation was given to me as "Στο κορίτσι αρέσει να τρώει τσίζκεικ"

But why is "Το κορίτσι αρέσει να τρώει τσίζκεικ" incorrect?


The subject of αρέσει is να τρώει τρίζκεικ -- that is the thing which is appealing.

To whom is that appealing? To the girl, στο κορίτσι.

Just as in English we don't say "It appeals her", you cannot say αρέσει το κορίτσι.


Why do we have to double up του in Του κοριτσιού του αρέσει ? Do you always double up the genitive article when the indirect object isn't a pronoun?


I was about to answer "yes", but that's not necessarily the case. It's also ok if the second "του" is omitted (not as common, maybe a bit less natural as well, but it's ok).

"Του κοριτσιού αρέσει να τρώει τσίζκεϊκ=Του κοριτσιού του αρέσει να τρώει τσίζκεϊκ=Στο κορίτσι αρέσει να τρώει τσίζκεϊκ"

I had never wondered about such a "rule", but, if it proves helpful to you, then stick to it ;)


Also, it’s not always “doubled up” — one is the genitive definite article, the other is the genitive personal pronoun.

In the plural, those are not the same: των κοριτσιών τους αρέσει

(Έτσι δεν είναι;)


Of course, thanks for the comment!


Δεν καταλαβαίνω γιατί είναι του κοριτσιού...


Read Philip newton's above answer his explanation is as simple as possible.it's about cases that english language doesn't have.


Why is "to eat" hear and not "eating"? Thank you!


Both should be accepted as correct. The "like + ing" and "like to + infinitive" forms have small differences in meaning, but both could apply here.

Check this out for more information and relevant examples: https://www.grammaring.com/to-infinitive-or-gerund-like-hate-prefer-cant-bear


The previous comments are a bit complicated for me

The second του wht is it του which i thought was masculine and not της which i think is feminine?

Simple answers if possible, please...


The word κορίτσι is grammatically neuter (το κορίτσι).

That's why you need the neuter form του rather than the feminine της.


Thanks Mizinamo

I see the first του as referring to the neuter word κοριτσιού but thought the second του would be a της to show it was about her


I see. But the second one still agrees with the grammatical gender of the noun κορίτσι, rather than the natural gender of the person.


Is του αρέσει του κοριτσιού..... completely wrong


Hello! No, it’s perfectly correct. It’s our fault that we hadn’t included it in the alternatives. It has just been added. Thank you for your comment! :)


Why it marks "να φαει" as wrong?


I think να φάει would imply it's a one-off action, like "She liked eating this cheesecake", not "She likes eating cheesecake (in general)".

I'm a learner though so native speaker advice would be appreciated.


Indeed, that is correct!

A sentence like “I want to eat/have eggs today” would be translated as «Θέλω να φάω αυγά σήμερα», because we’re talking about an one-off action in the future.

On the contrary, a sentence like “I like eating fruit in the summer” would be translated as «Μου αρέσει να τρώω φρούτα το καλοκαίρι», because this time we’re talking about a habit, a continuous action.

I hope this helps :)


Why is "του αρέσει" right instead of "της αρέσει"?


Why is "του αρέσει" right

Because το κορίτσι is grammatically neuter, not feminine.


Ευχαριστώ πάρα πολύ, I'm Italian, so I sometimes make this kind of mistakes when the grammatical structures are similar but not the same :D


Please read the previous comments. ;)


Why can it not be να φάει


Just a little above your comment you will see this has already been answered.

You should always read the other comments there is a lot of information.


And check out the Greek Forum here with more links.

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