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"¿No te gusta el arroz?"

Translation:You do not like rice?

5 years ago

19 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/mamajulie

But couldn't it be (like in English) that if we ask "You don't like rice?" it means rice in general, but if we ask "You don't like the rice?" we're talking about the rice that the person has just tried?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rocko2012
rocko2012
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The meanings are a bit different but as best I can tell the same Spanish is used for both English translations.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/EugeneTiffany

That is the impression I got as well. And it doesn't matter that the statement could be taken either way as the converstation is about some specifice rice which is being being referred to or rice in general. It's one or the other.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jdcaudle

Why the "el"?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rocko2012
rocko2012
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It seems to be the norm that an article will usually come after "gustar" if it is a "noun" that is being liked/disliked. I do not know why.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/frenchyboy5

This is somewhat like French, if you like something, you like all of it, not just this rice but THE rice. Therefore you use the definitive article, instead of the indefinite or the partitive.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/boss666

When we talk about something in general, we put the definite article :)

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/xx_Annelies

Can anyone explain to me the difference between the gusta and gustan? In another sentence before it was Te gustan los caballos? Or has it to do with the denial?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rocko2012
rocko2012
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If what a person likes(present tense) is plural(los caballos) use "gustan" if it is singular(el caballo) use "gusta".

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jecxjo
jecxjo
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"Te gustan los caballos" literally translates to "the horses please you". This is an example of a reflexive verb. So when you conjugate the verb you need to remember that the noun performing the action is "the horses" and the action is "pleasing something/someone".

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/EugeneTiffany

"gustan is a conjugation of the infinitive verb, " gustar," which means, like , taste , please , suit , love , interest , appeal , appeal to .

"I like" is: Yo gusto.

"They like" is: Ellos gustan.

And so forth.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/elysdir

Why is it te rather than tú or usted?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/elysdir

Aha--I see from other discussions that "te gusta" in this context means "pleasing to you" rather than "you like" per se; the question is really asking "Is rice not pleasing to you?" So it uses the indirect object form "te" rather than the subject form "tú". (http://studyspanish.com/lessons/gustar.htm)

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/yarjka
yarjka
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Extremely helpful, thanks!

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rocko2012
rocko2012
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The verb "Gustar" needs an object pronoun to know who it applies to. "te" is refering to "tú".

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/sjevernoamericka

isn't it gustaS? no te gustas el arroz? because i am asking YOU, and present of verb gustar for "you" is gustas? thanks :)

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/frenchyboy5

It's not gusta, it's gusta (singular) or gustan (plural) because the thing performing the action (el arroz in your example) comes after the verb here, gustar is not actually to like, it is to please, therefore "Te gusta el arroz?" is "Does the rice please you?" It would only be gustas if something liked you, or rather you pleased something, as in "Me gustas tu" <-tu should have accent. That's "you please me".

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/EugeneTiffany

Gustar means: like , taste , please , suit , love , interest , appeal , appeal to

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/CeeCeeSong

I don't understand why it is gusya instead of gustas.

2 months ago