Would "It is the ocean" still be a valid translation of "aυτός είναι ο ωκεανός"? With my current understanding I see that everytime a personal pronoun is followed right by a definitive article it turns from for example "Αυτός ο ωκεανος" -> literally "He the ocean" to "This ocean".
This time we have a verb between the personal pronoun and the definite article and suddenly the definitive article previously erased from the sentence when a personal pronoun was present comes back to life and the personal pronoun turns into "this" for no apparent reason. What is the rule here? How do I say "It is the ocean" in greek if not by saying "aυτός είναι ο ωκεανός"?