Would "I am not paying for my friends." be wrong?
That's also a correct translation.
Marked wrong for me too.
should this be "para" and not "por" ??
No, ‘por’ is used for causes, and ‘para’ for goals. Whether I'm paying on behalf of my friends or buying my friends, they're the cause of the payment.
I know Andreas dropped out a long time ago, but can anyone else give some valid examples of his explanation? Gracias.
Why do you need the "por" in this case, but you don't need it in "pago la cena"? (from a previous DL question)
If you left out the "por", you would be saying "I don't pay my friends," which could have different implications.
would somebody tell me what the difference between "para" and "por" is. i have no clue what the difference is and i am struggling because of it. thanks
Just realized it's been ten months so if you stuck with it you probably already know, but for anyone who doesn't, StudySpanish.com has the bext explanation I can find.
what is the difference between "para" and "por"
The simplest explanation is that ‘por’ is used for causes, and ‘para’ for goals.
I think "I am not paying for my friends" should be an accepable translation?