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thanks, but still, i'm not convinced. my romanian-french dictionary translates "a placea" by "plaire", which means "to please" (etymologically all three are obviously the same word). and i've only ever seen "a placea" being used in sentences like "îmi place ceai", literally "tea pleases me" (idiomatically of course "i like tea"), with "ceai" as subject and "eu/îmi" as dative object.
is it actually possible to translate "i like tea" by "eu plac ceai"? wouldn't that, if anything, mean "i please tea", "tea likes me"?
haha okay well i think you don't get what i'm trying to say ;) i believe it would be better to remove "a placea" as a simple vocabulary question, and only use it in a full sentence. in isolation, it's confusing to translate it by "like", because subject and object are inversed.
anyway, thank you for the work on the course! i'm a professional linguist and i can read romanian quite well, but the course is very helpful for learning to speak a little bit actively! multumesc!
I like tea and tea pleases me mean the same thing. To like something means it pleases you. To be pleased by something means you like it. This is no different than in other languages. If it helps English speakers understand better what is the harm in accepting it? That is how we are going to read it whether you are pleased by it or not.
I certainly agree with the confusion athemu is having regarding this word - yes, colloquially, we in English tend towards saying straightforwardly "x likes x" when our experience with many European languages is that the same thing is rendered as "x pleases x." The examples coming to me immediately are Slavic, "mne nravitsya" (it pleases me - > I like). That Russian phrase is always learned with the Dative object in order to make it easier to learn, rather than just the base infinitive. I think it could be helpful to do something similar here, like adding the object of the verb to make it easier to understand the usage of.