"He runs for pleasure."
Translation:Αυτός τρέχει για ευχαρίστηση.
It wouldn't be wrong, but the sentence has more of a "general" meaning. No article is used in English as well, for the same reason. (He runs for pleasure instead of the pleasure) ^.^
"τρέχει για ηδονή"? Or would ηδονή perhaps sound a bit odd in a sentence like this?
I find ηδονή too much to be provoked by running. Εγώ προσωπικά τρέχω και μου αρέσει αλλά ποτέ δεν ηδονίστηκα μ'αυτό! Ηδονή is more sensual... ;)
Thanks Troll! I thought that might have been the case but I wasn't quite sure, thanks for clarifying.
For most parts I have difficulty to guess the need for the usage of την. My answer was: Αυτος τρεχει για την ευχαρίστηση and I do not think it is wrong.
Please read Dimitra956826's comment above. Every language has those things for which coming up with an explanation might be hard. It's not that your suggestion is wrong, but some things are just said in a specific way. The absence, however, of the definite article in both languages is probably helpful.