"It is made by women."
Translation:C'est fait par des femmes.
In the example, it is "par ordinateur," but it's not OK to say her, "par femmes"?
Can you explain what is going on grammatically with this sentence? I'm confused by both the English and the French.
Also in the French version, if one uses etre with past participle (that takes avoir in the passe compose), is there agreement?
You have to compare active and passive actions:
active: (some) women make it = des femmes font cela/ça (or "des femmes le/la font")
passive: it is made by women = cela/ça/c'est fait par des femmes: in both languages, "made/fait" is a past participle working as an adjective with verb "être/be".
Since "fait" is functioning as an adjective, it can take an agreement, depending on the subject. In this sentence, cela/ça/c' are all masculine by default, so "fait" is masculine singular.
But if the subject were feminine or plural, you would see the agreement:
- cette chose est faite par des femmes (fem sing)
- ces objets sont faits par des femmes (masc plur)
- ces choses sont faites par des femmes (fem plur)
I am sure this has come up previously but could someone please explain when one should use "il est“ and when “c'est“
One more grammar point. Is it "faire" that requires "par" in this construction? In the sentence "il est aimé de tous" would the substitution "Il est aimé des femmes" be acceptable (without "par")? Or is it the partitive that makes "par" obligatory? Or is it "aimer" that can take an unusual construction?
"par" is prompted by the passive form of the verb/sentence (active form: women do it/des femmes le font).
All action verbs would work the same: il est mangé/bu/trouvé/demandé/chanté/dansé... par des femmes
The dual form "il est aimé/respecté/détesté de/par tous" is specific to verbs of like/dislike.
So far so good. But in the dual form is "est detesté des femmes" acceptable, or should it be "est detesté par des femmes"? Feels as if "par" ought to be there, but just checking.
Understood. Sorry if I seem obtuse, but my question is about the "des" liason. Does "de" belong to the verb (détesté de) or the noun (des femmes) or does it have a dual function in this construction? "Détesté de des femmes" looks improbable; "détesté des femmes" looks incomplete, unless "de" goes both ways. The correct form seems "détesté par des femmes." Is my question clear now?
the preposition belongs to "détesté" (aimé, haï, adoré...): all of them can introduce their indirect object either with "de" or with "par" (of or by)
il est aimé/détesté du/par le chien, des/par les femmes, de/par la terre entière, de/par tous ses collègues...
I put "Ça est fait par des femmes." for fun to see if it works. It was marked wrong but I'm not quite sure why it's not correct. Is it because it's 'it' opposed to 'this' or 'that'?
"ça" is not used in front of "est", mainly because "c'est" is even faster and does mean "ceci est" or "cela est".
Are "ça est", "cela est", and "ceci est" all grammatically wrong then?
No, but the sound of "ça est" or "cela est" is uneasy. "Ceci est" is more often used because [i-è] is easy to liaise.
Why can't I use "C'est faisait par de femmes"? Faisait describes as well the past sentence. Or how should/can I use Faisait in this example?