"I have to be a man, and yet I am a woman."

Translation:Je dois être un homme, or je suis une femme.

February 17, 2013

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First world problems?


why does "and yet" translate to "or" here?


Because "or" is a conjunction like 'and' is in English, but in French "oui" means 'yes' to signify affirmative agreement, whereas "si" means 'but yes' to signify (polite) affirmative contradiction. So,I believe it is not 'and yet' as in English but instead, is 'but yet' or "or" to show contradiction with french brevity.


That's one of duolingo's translations for 'or'. For me 'have to' means a strong sense of obligation. 'Should' would fit 'dois' much better in this context.


isnt i have is j'ai ??


I have translates as 'j'ai', that's true. However that's not quite the same as 'I have to'...


Yeah right. Thank you @berginci!


"Dois" is the first-person (je) and second-person singular (tu) conjugation of the infinitive "devoir" which translates into "must," "have," "bound," "should," "ought," "owe," as in one's "duty" and to owe money or payment: "Combien est-ce que je vous dois?" (How much (money) do I owe you?) So, berginci is partially correct, as the "to" in 'I have to'... actually belongs to the infinitive of the verb that follows "dois" or the first part of "to be" - in this particular case: "I have" (dois) "to be" (être). Interestingly, in french, "devoirs" is how they refer to homework from school or work that is "due" or "owed" by next class. I'm learning too, so i hope this helps :)


that doesn't make sense. man and woman at the same time?!?! is this some kind of pantomime?!

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