Estoy is for temporary, changeable conditions, soy suggests permanence. If you are simply between them in line, use estoy. If you really, really hate her, and have vowed you will never see them together, you could use "soy." ;)
As a vague general rule it's true, but my grammar book suggests it's all a bit more complicated than that... :( Eg. "Segovia esta en Espana, al norte de Madrid." It is pretty permanent, still they use estar. Or "Que hora es? - Son las doce y media" It's temporary and yet they use ser. If you say it's Friday today, you use estar, if you say it's Saturday tomorrow you use ser. Confusing.
Anyhow, as I read through the example sentences, I can't really discover a crystal clear logic. I think I just have to learn that in this case you use this, in that case you you use that and don't ask why.
yo soy rico should be wrong yet is marked correct. you may not be rich for your lifetime so why not yo estoy rico? Wealth may be temporary.
If being rich is part of 'what you currently are' use ser. I say 'soy joven' even though I will someday be old. Estar does include the possibility of change, it expects change.
You are so right.. but there is one exception. Soy can also deal with time, and when you think about it, time is pretty much always changing.
Use the verb "estar" when speaking about being at a place, in a situation, condition or any particular frame of mind.
I think it's whimsical, as partita has noted above. But also, it seems, as rspreng indicates, it could be either. "Estar" is used for location (which is often permanent), so the temporary/permanence divide is no clear division of these verbs.
That said, my grammar book lists "soy casado" (I am married) as being the correct way to say that phrase. But in a grammar lesson on the online LoMasTV, the teacher says, "Estoy casado," and adds with a wink that she's married hoy, but mañana, who knows?
Similarly, in my grammar book: "Ella es bonita," = She is pretty (by nature). "Ella está bonita" = She is pretty right now. "Es borracho" = He's a drunk (as a characteristic); Está borracho = He's drunk (right now). And many more.
I just found a good webpage that discusses both estar and ser for casado: http://spanish.about.com/od/usingparticularverbs/a/casado.htm
I really wish they would have explained that in some manner before I took this lesson. I had no clue about different verbs for the same English verbs but based on duration
I think in th pc version much more explaination but the phone version is shortened to mostly exercises
limenchili- estar+ a place where an object or a person is (location), always estar. Dónde estás? Estoy en Paris. él estaba detrás de la mesa, behind the table. Dónde estan mis gafas? Estan aquí.
Because the verb ESTAR is to indicate a LOCATION. so you always use the verb estar when it comes to a place.
i do not know the difference from the two it is always easy for me to get it wrong in that case
Why "I stay between you and him" is not accepted? Peek showed that estoy is stay.
estar is to be/I am. Estoy is yo form conjugated. Thus Yo(I) (estoy)(am) would make sense rather than stay.
"stay" would generally be used when you mention a location or place. "I stay at Villa Park" would be yo estoy en Villa Park
I am in a position right now, but can be in another position whenever I want to change it. Soy is kind of a permanent state and estoy is a changeable state. I hope it helps!
You need to use object pronouns (me, you, him, her, it, us, them) after a preposition. This is a pretty strict rule. You do hear between she and I, but my usage dictionary says it should be avoided. I've never heard between you and he or between she and he from a native speaker. (Doesn't mean there aren't people who use it, but it really isn't terribly standard.)
An excerpt from http://blog.dictionary.com/youandme/ :
The “you and me” problem is confusing when there are two objects, as in the sentence “Thanks for inviting my husband and I to dinner.” If you are ever unsure, here’s a simple trick. Omit the first person and see how it sounds. If you said, “Thanks for inviting I to dinner,” it sounds wrong. Without two people, it is easier to use your ear to hear if “I” or “me” is grammatically correct.
Why is translation "I am with (or among) you and him" not acceptable. This is the pull down for entre and makes sense to me?
The proper word for 'with' would usually be 'con'. The pull down just gives you hints and similarities but not exact meanings, so don't rely on it. The sentence on a whole should make sense with what's given.
Well, in a sense, I am among you and him IS acceptable. But the word between (in both Eng and Span) can only be used when sth is between 2 other things. Among cannot be used with 2 things. So if the sentence were Estoy entre la familia, you would translate it as among instead of between. It's really just a matter of understanding the difference between "between" and "among" in English first.
When this is spoken quickly, the second "e" in "entre"" sounds like the most common vowel SOUND (not letter ) in English, "UH" . Is it just the computer voice, or does Spanish change vowel sounds at the end of words when speaking quickly ? (this doesn't change the meaning, so native speakers may not know they do it). I hear this also in some of the sentences with nosotro/nosotra, where it can be hard to tell the difference - not exactly the UH but neither a strong o or a strong a.
"Tú" means you while "tu" means your. "Él" means he or him while "el" means the. It has nothing to do with being placed in the beginning of a sentence or not.
the use of Y and E has nothing to do with verbs, you use e when the following word starts with an "y" sound so it's easier to pronounce.
I got this wrong. Well, how would say "I stay between you and him "? Really makes no sense when they say Estoy can also mean stay. Since this is the first we came across this word they should make it clear.
Between takes an object pronoun, which is him. Although this seems to be something that is changing in American English right now, and you will hear it fairly frequently, the consensus seems to be that between you and he ( using the subject pronoun) is incorrect.
I wanted to translate "I am the piggie in the middle" but knew they would not think it was correct
The translation should be "I am between you and he" should it not? Because the object of a copulative very (i.e. the verb "to be") takes the subjective case.
The pronouns are the object of the preposition between, not the copulative verb. By the way, the rule in English the way it is used is to use an object pronoun immediately after the verb. It's me is MUCH more common than it's I. The whole copulative verbs take subject pronouns rule is part of a very old attempt to make English like Latin. It's me goes back to Chaucer, WAAAAY before grammarians got involved with how we SHOULD speak English.
Technically, proper English would read 'between you and he.' Most English speakers make the mistake of using 'him' in place of 'he.'
Between is a preposition. Prepositions are followed by object pronouns. He is a subject pronoun. Between you and he, while often used, is wrong. Think about it. Would you say between we? If most English speakers are saying between you and him, they are saying it correctly.
No. Between you and him. At least this was the rule when I was in school over 50 years ago.