"Your wife reads a book."
Translation:Η γυναίκα σου διαβάζει ένα βιβλίο.
I understand that in written Greek, an accent on the pronoun would indicate an indirect object, eg: Η γυναίκα σού διαβάζει ένα βιβλίο would then be "The woman reads a book to you." What about spoken Greek? Would there be an audible pause (as though there were a comma) after γυναίκα in order to pair it with the verb as opposed to the preceding noun? eg: Η γυναίκα (pause) σου διαβάζει ένα βιβλίο? Or would there be more audible emphasis placed on the pronoun as a way to distinguish it from the possessive adjective? (eg: Η γυναίκα σου διαβάζει ένα βιλβίο.)
It's not a clearly audible pause, it's more about intonation as your comment implies: how words are grouped together and speech flows.
Η γυναίκα σού διαβάζει ένα βιβλίο = Η γυναίκα σουδιαβάζει ένα βιβλίο
Η γυναίκα σου διαβάζει ένα βιβλίο =Η γυναίκασου διαβάζει ένα βιβλίο
If you try to read these as they are grouped, you are forced to utter the words in a way that it's clear whether σου is a possessive or not.
Yes, but only in a case when it could be misunderstund as a possessive, as in the above sentence. So αυτός σου διαβάζει=he reads to you does not need an accent because σου here could never be a possessive. Also, that accent mark is present in spoken Greek as an emphasis on σου.