If the boy wants to eat cheese on just one occasion, which I think is the implication, should it not be να φαει ?
Hm, where can I report a mistake? The word "to" (να) is not a preposition here; it is part of the infinitive form of the verb. A preposition must usually be followed by a noun (the object of the preposition) or an implied noun, not a verb. "Να" plus the verb is usually the way that the infinitive is formed in Greek, just as "to" followed by the verb is the way that the infinitive is formed in English. I am by no means an expert in Greek, so would like confirmation of this. Thanks.
I too would like some confirmation on this. Directly from the "Verbs Pt.1" tips notes:
"The INFINITIVE: we use the first person of the verb with nothing in front: δίνω* = to give"
and this does indeed seem to be a sentence using an infinitive. Thanks!
In English, a single word can be used in a variety of ways. For example, the word "inside" can be used as a preposition (She colors inside the lines.) or as an adverb (I'm going inside now.) The word cannot be classified as a preposition or as an adverb until it is used in a sentence. The word "to" is another word that can be used as a preposition (I'm going to the store) or as something else - most often as part of the infinitive form of a verb (I'm going to run tomorrow.) . The word "to" is not a preposition in this sentence; it is part of the infinitive. My understanding is that in Greek, the word "να" is not a preposition (it does not come at the beginning of a prepositional phrase!); it is part of the infinitive, just as "to" is part of the infinitive in English.
is this one of those cases where the noun doesn't take an article or is it just me? τυρί doesn't seem to have any article at all coming before itself, is there a reason for that?
The word τυρί does not have an article (in both Greek and English in this sentence) because we are talking about cheese in general, not about a cheese (indefinite article) or the particular cheese (definite article).