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- "Do you like eating oranges?"
"Do you like eating oranges?"
Translation:Σου αρέσει να τρως πορτοκάλι;
16 Comments
1396
I'm seconding johelen's unanswered implied question below. Is there some logical (or Greek-logical) reason you wouldn't translate "eat oranges [plural]" as "τρως πορτοκάλια [plural]"?
975
I might be completely wrong about this, so apologies in advance. In Portuguese, when you want to say "I'm eating an (one) orange", you have to include the article "an", whereas if you write "I'm eating orange" (which is something you I don't think you'd say in English?), you aren't specifying the quantity, (similarly to how you'd say "I'm eating soup"), so it could mean more than one. I don't know if that is the case in greek as well, so it would be great if someone could clarify this :)
Well, here is the thing. I can't say that the quantity is specified when you use singular without the article, but most of the times, only one object is implied. Also, plural can be used without the article as well, implying, of course, more than one objects
-Τι τρως; -Πορτοκάλι. (Usually meaning one orange.)
-Τι τρως; -Πορτοκάλια. (Obviously meaning more than one orange.)
In this case though, you are mostly right. It is pretty common for Greeks to use singular without the article to refer to something in general (not giving any emphasis on the quantity). Yes, it would make sense for someone to say "Τρως πορτοκάλια;", but the singular is -at least in my opinion-, more commonly used, and has the same meaning.
Things that would sound odd in English sound perfectly okay in Greek. I guess that is a thing for pretty much every language out there. ^.^
1396
να τρως connotes "regularly," while να φας suggests a one-shot deal (as in "I'll eat an orange with breakfast today"). Because "I like to" suggests a general preference, αρέσει is generally followed by the former form, derived from the basic present tense.
1396
Παρακαλώ! I know the volunteers who maintain the Greek Duolingo site do their best to keep up with questions here, but when I see a long-neglected question, like yours, still not addressed (and I think I know the answer!), I take a shot at it.... All the best, Paul
1277
isn't abbreviating σου αρεσει into σ'αρεσει commonly accepted? Why would it not be in this case