"There is no proof of that."
Translation:Δεν υπάρχει απόδειξη για αυτό.
21 CommentsThis discussion is locked.
Not exactly. Ένδειξη is more of a clue, an indication. So, that fact that someone may have a clue doesn't necessarily mean that they have proof, no? ^.^
That's good to know, I had originally learned the two as being almost interchangeable. Thanks Dimitra!
And it's actually pretty common to say "Είναι απλά μια ένδειξη, δεν αποδεικνύει κάτι"
Thank you! RE ένδειξη/απόδειξη, I have to unlearn what I originally learned in someone else's Memrise course now ;-)
Quick question, while you're here: for αποδεικνύω (and the other -δεικνύω words), is the -δείχνω or -δεικνύω variant more commonly used? My dictionary seems to prefer the former but I've only been seeing the latter lately.
I definitely think that the -δεικνύω variants of those words are more commonly used. Think that βικιλεξικό has αποδεικνύω as the definition of αποδείχνω and that I have never used αποδείχνω in my whole life, and I don't think that's just me... ;)
Well... Personally, I think I've only used δείχνω exactly as it is. :P For all the rest, the -δεικνύω variants are the ones to go with. ^.^
Thanks Troll and Dimitra! I'm using the Oxford Greek-English dictionary by Stavropoulos, and that's not the first time that it's preferenced versions that I've later found out aren't commonly used.
Since it's "of that" I would expect to use the genitive: Δεν υπάρχει απόδειξη του αυτού. Why isn't this is the case? (I feel like there have been a bunch of "of something" examples where genitive ended up being wrong and still trying to figure out the pattern).
"Δεν έχει" means "do not have/does not have" without knowing the rest of the sentence we can't determine how it could be used.
Because that would be "he doesn't have". υπαρχει is a useful word because it means "there is" or "there are" (spanish "hay", or italian c'e) and regards existence rather than possession. Instead of saying "you don't have proof", it says "there is no proof".
I have been taught (and I see evidence everywhere) that υπάρχει and έχει are almost interchangeable. Υπάρχει and υπάρχουν are used with the nominative case, and έχει (to be compared with French il y a from avoir and Spanish hay from haber = to have) with accusative. Υπάρχει ένας άντρας στον κήπο OR Έχει έναν άντρα στον κήπο. If this is correct, maybe the alternative έχει should be added to the possible answers where now only υπάρχει is considered correct.
There is no "για αυτό" in the hints. Only "εκείνη της" and "εκείνου του".
I don't see an answer to the first question in the thread. Why not: Δεν υπάρχει απόδειξη για εκεινό. ?