"Put the bowl on the bed."

Translation:Βάλε το μπολ πάνω στο κρεβάτι.

January 25, 2017

This discussion is locked.


Is there a difference between "επάνω" and "πανω"?


Not really, I'd say πάνω is more common in general.
Sometimes the ε- helps in linking to previous words in spoken Greek: Βάλ'το επάνω στο τραπέζι. Here makes το π- softer (/easier?) to pronounce, because the ο is very weak and τ-π is a pretty 'sharp' sound, if that makes sense. It's like the optional -ε in third person plural in verbs: κάνουν vs κάνουνε.


is έπανω the emphatic form of πάνω?


It's actually the non-syncoped form of it ;)


How do we detect that πάνω should be emphasised for this question? Was it in her voice? The top hint was "πάνω στο" but it was marked wrong.


"πάνω στο" is correct but what was the rest of your sentence. There must have been another mistake. Did you make a REPORT?



This is the Greek Forum with more information.



My apologies. There was another mistake. Sometimes I can't view my answer on the cellphone because it's covered up by DL's answer.

Re my question, I can't understand FULLY the reason why there are TWO imperatives in Greek. I now know I use the "other one" to emphasise, but there seems to be more reasons to use it. I have read the Tips page but there were no English examples of either. Can you give me an obvious example in English of both, and why they differ please? Thank in advance.


I can't view my answer on the cellphone because it's covered up by DL's answer. Sorry, this happens. Please report it here. https://support.duolingo.com/hc/en-us

I now know I use the "other one" to emphasise, but there seems to be more reasons to use it.

What is the "other one". You should remember that we cannot see what you wrote.

Let us know what you would like explained and of course we will try our best to do so.

TWO imperatives in Greek. What indicates to you that there are two imperatives? I fear you have misunderstood something. Please give more specific information so we can explain.


How does βάζω become βάλε. Where is the lambda coming from? Is it an irregular verb or a part of regular but complex rule?


Not actually. It is a strange case. The stem βαζ- comes from the Ancient verb βιβάζω, medieval βάζω, I ascend, according wiktionary. The stem βαλ- comes from the Ancient stem βαλ- ,as the verb βάλλω, I throw, I shoot. So as one can conclude that these two stems are integrated in the modern verb. Maybe it is so. There is the form βάνω in a more vulgar and poetic form, so as it is difficult to say which is the itinerary of this βάζω. It is certain that this βα- is the same root with the Latin bastare, a Indo-European root.


It's an irregular verb. See here for a view of its conjugation. http://cooljugator.com/gr/list/all


Why do we βάλε το ποτήρι στο τραπέζι but βάλε το μπολ πάνω στο κρεβάτι?

Sorry if this has been asked/answered before.

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