Can someone clarify why the 'él' can come immediately before or after the 'no habló' ? Is it simply used as a way of clarifying that the habló be understood as HE did not talk?
I answered: "Por qué no habló con ella por teléfono" without él and it was accepted, it was enough
I guess it's for a different emphasis, but without knowing the context, maybe it could be tricky to understand. Anyway, this is not the only way to say that.
Why is it "le habló" and not "la habló" ? Why is she an indirect object and not the direct one?
Because he talked TO her. Her is IO. The speech or what was said is the DO.
Would this work?
"Por qué él no le habló por el teléfono"
Tried this and it worked
I did too, except I also added "a ella" after the verb to specify the le to mean her. And it was accepted.
Why is 'hablo a ella' wrong?
Hablo is the Ist person in present tense. YO HABLO.
But HABLÓ with the accent is the third person (he she it and you formal usted) in the past tense
so the the additional "a ella" is okay? it is just not necessary?
Why is it wrong to include se, as in "¿Por que el no se habló con ella por teléfono ayer?"
Because i think using 'se' would make the verb reflexive...and would mean: why didn't he talk to himself with her
Ayer? Where did yesterday come in?
umm... I'm not really sure now. That's odd.
Why is it ella? I though that was she? Why not su?
'Ella' can also be 'her'. You could use 'su' if you were saying, for example, 'Este es su libro', 'This is her book', although in this case the 'su' doesn't indicate whether it is his book, her book, or their book.
Por telefono or en telefono? How do I tell the difference?
Unfortunately, with prepositions, you usually have to learn the difference in each language. Here it would be 'por telefono'. Think of it as being 'by means of...', which is 'por medio de...'.