"The girl heard a dog in your house."
Translation:La niña oyó a un perro en tu casa.
So if it's an animal that is likely to be a pet (e.g. a dog) and it is in a place where pets usually are (e.g. in a house) then you would assume it's a pet and use the "personal a?" Does this hold true for other animals that are usually pets...?
What if it was some stray dog that wandered into a house? Would you still use the "personal a?"
Ok, that makes sense. Thanks for the clarification! One more question, would it come off as rude if I were to say to the owner of the dog, "Oí un perro en tu casa" if I didn't know it was his pet? Or would he assume that I just didn't realize it was his pet?
I'm just wondering how it's perceived when you miss the personal a in regard to animals vs. other people.
When I read the sentence I assumed it was a stray dog that she heard outside and thought the "a" was odd.
Perhaps it's a untaught nuance of conversational Spanish that if you don't use the personal "a", the person you're talking to will automatically know that it was a stray and not a pet.
I would argue that it isn't. If she was truly familiar with the dog, the sentence would say "the dog" or "her dog." In both cases, especially the latter, the personal a woukd be great. Sating "a dog" implies, at least to me, that she isn't familiar with the dog.
However, there are always dialects and evolution of the language to consider.
Forget about the personal "a" for a moment as it's not relevant to this discussion.
Now, pronouns by their very definition are used in place of the nouns. Since the sentence has made use of the noun - "un perro" - itself, you can't use a pronoun for it as well. That won't make grammatical sense.
But if el dueño (the owner) replies, "¿Cuando?" (when?), and you want to respond with "the girl heard it yesterday," you would now have to translate the "it" with the direct object pronoun "lo" as, "la niña lo oyó ayer."
Ah okay, so (1) if the owner were to extend this dog conversation with another sentence like, "but I gave the dog its food yesterday," it should translate to, "pero le di al perro su comida ayer" with a mandatory "le" but optional "al perro." Correct?
(2) But if he then shares, "I received the dog as a gift," he would say, "recibí al perro como un regalo" with no "lo" required now.
And lastly, (3) my understanding is that the "a" in (1) is the preposition "to" omitted in English (gave (to) the dog) but is a personal "a" in (2).
Am I correct on all three counts now?
I am also confused on this and have found no definite answer in the comments section of similar questions. The ideas I have are:
1.) The use of the verb 'to hear' in spanish has some peculiarity in being a direct or indirect action. (I.e. gustar translating as the direct action verb 'like', but acting as the indirect action of 'something/someone pleases something/someone')
2.) I believe that the seeming 'personal a' in this sentence is not a 'personal a' and instead denotes that 'un perro' is the subject of the verb action. This 'a' negates the use of the IO/DO object pronoun?
3.) There is some kind of rule that states that if the subject of the action is uknown/?of uknown gender, (una persona) then a DO/IO subject pronoun cannot be applied.
I am very confused here and would greatly appreciate some clarification!
Escuchar is usually translated as "listen" and oir as "to hear". There's definitely some overlap but "listen" is a more active action: you choose to listen to music or your parents. "Hearing" can be more of passive action: you weren't specifically listening for the birds but you heard them singing outside your window.