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  5. "A coffee with sugar, please."

"A coffee with sugar, please."

Translation:Einen Kaffee mit Zucker, bitte.

February 22, 2013



The implied words are "I would like/ Ich möchte" for example, thats why coffee/Kaffee is accusative case.


Implied words? Really?! I would think that when learning a language, you would not want to confuse the student like this. Plus, up here in Canada, no one ever orders a coffee in Tim Horton's starting with "I would like". We go directly into how may sugars and cream! ;) So this sentence sounds quite perfect to me!


That's because even in english, the phrase "one coffee please!" has the implied words "I would like" in front of it. This is what makes "one coffee please!" grammatically correct in the first place.

The exact same phenomenon is happening with this German phrase.


So "please", as an adverb, leads to the implication (i.e. that there is a verb like "would" for which coffee is the object).

I think it's worth having this in the Duo set because I've heard this a lot in Germany (with and without the please!) and it had confused me. There's a few examples like this that catch common mistakes.


one Double Double please!


I thought that accusative case was for nouns being acted on by verbs? Is there an implied verb here (can I have...)? If not, why is it accusative and not nominative?


same doubt here. thought in this case Kaffee was nominative


Okay! That's what I was wondering too. Why is it the accusative case? I see now.


Why is it the accusative case? I need more details


Why is it einen instead of ein, is it acusative and if so why?


I agree with JennK777. Why complicate things with an "implied" structure. At least, introduce it before expecting people to use it intuitively.


I figured out the implied words thing after a few attempts at similar sentences, but for this to use accusative and no dative case was unexpected. Sigh.


I can see your point, but remember that even in a sentence like "[give me] a coffee, please." the pronoun "me" would be dative, not the noun coffee, hence "[gib mir] einen Kaffee, bitte."


OK, I have read more and realised I initially misunderstood the dative in this sentence. It's frustrating how difficult it is for me to think about language elements considering speaking is so easy!


Actually I just generally misunderstood dative and how it applies


Having recently arrived in Austria, I'm glad they have this sentence even though there are implied words, because it's a very common phrase here.

  • Mr Cooper, how do you take it?
  • Black as midnight on a moonless night.


I translated this as "ein Kaffee" and it marked it as correct but with an alternative translation of "einen". After reading this thread I realize it was supposed to be accusative, so why was the nominative also deemed correct? Is thia grammatically possible or just a glitch?

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