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"I do not hear you, do you hear me?"

Translation:No te oigo, ¿tú me oyes?

February 22, 2013



This verb is so crazy: oigo, oyes, oye, oimos, oyen. !Caramba!


Yeah, I messed this one up because of the conjugation. I actually got the object parts correct. {[sigh}}


My God, I got it right, but it was like my brain was in a blender!


just wait until u start conjugating perfect subjunctive vos and vosotros


Just this mention of conjugating perfect subjunctive vos and vosotros makes me nervous :'-(


How is this a vosotros question? How were we supposed to know that?


I agree. We can't really know it's a vosotros question. It should accept tu and ustedes as well.


It accepted ustedes for me.


I guess it's: No os oigo, ¿me oís?
Duolingo teaches American Spanish, in which ustedes is used as 2nd person plural even informally.


You can reply in the tú form. "No te oigo, me oyes?"


Duolingo don't accept that answer. Why "no te oigo" is wrong?


Because you have to translate the whole sentence, you dropped half of it. It would be: (Yo) No te oigo, ¿(tú) me oyes?


Yes, you can drop subjects because of the verb, it carries the meaning of the subject. If you use subjects always when talking it sounds a little strange. Hope it helps you: )


I'm still lost as to why is accepts 'me oi's' but not 'me oigas' :P


It has to do with the conjugation of the verb oir, which is a bit odd. I can't link directly to it, but type "oír" into this: http://www.conjugation.org/

oigas is the tú form of the present subjunctive. Here, we want the simple present ("present indicative")


I said «no te oigo, me oyes» and it said no i should have put « no le oigo, me oyes» why?


In Spanish the rule is that the whole question shall be limited at both ends by the question mark. You are not allowed to use only one. The same goes for the exclamation mark though.


The English sentence looks grammatically incorrect to me as well. I would expect the two clauses to be written as independent sentences, or maybe separated by a semicolon.


Yeah, it looks better to me with a semicolon rather than a comma. If I were writing carefully, I would use a semicolon.


In other words, even if the sentence is correct with only "?" At the end it still an error?


Well, DL rules, I do not know. Grammatically, yes, it is a mistake not to write ¿ at the beginning.

It might sound odd such things, but it simply a convention that has been used. As Daniel-in-BC mentioned above, the transition to a question when there is no period might be a bit odd. In Spanish that is solved by the ¿/¡ and a comma. I do believe semi colon might be used and obviously a period, which requires capital letter afterwards. I am not so sure whether you have to use alsways capital after ¿/¡ though... I always feel guilty not to :$


I answered this wrong with "No te oigo, ¿puedes me oyes?". I would have that the verb 'to be able to' would work in this context, or did I just use it incorrectly?


Not exactly the same meaning ("Can you hear me?" rather than "Do you hear me?"). Grammatically, your question would need to be ¿puedes oírme? Two reasons, you follow conjugated verbs with infinitives, and indirect/direct object pronouns are then attached to the infinitive that follows. Does that make sense?


exactly! and another way would be "´¿me puedes oír?


For some reason the grammatical reasoning is super confusing to me. Thanks for the guidance though, I'll look into it further.


Nothing wrong with using poder here if you were trying to convey the same meaning (although as pointed out above, you have the structure wrong) in a real life conversation, however when doing translations you can't substitute or add verbs not present.


¿puedes me oyes? is bad Spanish. Correct is "¿puedes oirme?, that is the infinitive of the verb must follow "poder".


or you could use: ¿me puedes oír?"


Looks like everyone but me got the verb correct! I put "yo no te escucho, me escuchas?" and got it correct. To hear and to listen are somewhat different. I think I am actually afraid of the verb 'oir'.....lol!


yeah, oír is tricky to conjugate ... http://www.conjugation.org/ (It won't let me link directly to the conjugation of oír.)


It's one of the frustrating aspects of Spanish, irregular verbs like "ser" "ir" "OÍR" are very common and the only way to get them right is to memorize them.


I hate this sentence with a passion.


I was not aware of the acceptable use of the question mark in mid sentence. Revisiting Clitics and do not recall this sentence.


In Spanish, generally only the 'question' part of the question is surrounded by questions marks.


Oigan would be the ustedes form and it was counted incorrect. Am I wrong here?


You might not know this yet, but oigan is actually a different form of the verb-- it's used for talking about conditional events: things y'all hope for, wait for, wish for... but might not get. My tenses are killing me here.


And your not alone. I have reached the level where we are learning a lot of new verb and now adding in past tense. I will say that I had a hard time with clitic pronouns but I've gotten into the swing of things now. Mind you I make a lot of mistakes but learning here is so much better than in a classroom. Who cares if I make a mistake, just do it over and over as needed. I will still get there some day.


Repetition is indeed the key. Love this format.


Me too. Any hint as to where i can find additional information about this so calles clitic pronouns?


Well said. I'm working harder than usual here but enjoying the process regardless of the mistakes I'm making. I've recorded some of the exercises in this section so that I can really study then in light of what I'm learning about 'Object pronouns'. Congratulations to all those who take the time to add questions/comments/suggestions to these forums.


ustedes form is "oyen" (same as they form)


Another example would be tengo from tener


"Oigan" is present subjunctive and imperative tenses only. This sentence is in the present tense.


it says one of the correct answers starts with "No le oigo" isn't this "I don't hear to you?"


The subject pronoun tú is not necessary since this information is communicted by the "s" at the end of the verb.


"Puedes oirme?" not correct?


Correct, but not a good translation. The sentence say "do you hear me", not "can you hear me".


it can be: ¿Me puedes oír? or ¿Puedes oírme?


Ya know... the fact that this thing gets nit picky about random details used to really frustrate me. Now, given just how !@#$ complicated Indirect Object Pronouns and Direct Object Pronouns are.... it's really nice to know I'm being honked at for mispellings/wrong word/wrong gender instead of fundamental grammar issues.

(I got 'tu' and 'te' mixed up... and the last one, I misspelled "respecto")


I get frustrated at myself about the random details - but those are the things that distinguish educated from uneducated English speakers, native speakers from non-native speakers. You get the meaning when someone says "I heard he", instead of "I heard him" but your perception of the speaker changes.


Most people give non-native speakers some slack. I believe that, for most, the perception of a native English speaker saying "I heard he" would be different from the perception of a non-native speaker saying the same thing.


How come "No te oigo, ¿me oye?" isn't correct??


'No te oigo, me oyes' should work. Not sure if you gave us your exact answer.


Thank you @rmcgwn for the reply. My exact answer was "No te oigo, ¿me oye?" and it was incorrect. According to Duolingo, I needed "tú" in front of "me oye" to be correct but thought tú wouldn't be necessary.


Then its because you used oye and not oyes.


Oye is the usted form and should be accepted.


Now I totally got it! Thanks again!


No i said 'No te oigo, ¿me oyes?' and it said incorrect. The possible answers it gives are: No le oigo, ¿me oyes? No te oigo, tu me oyes?


Tu isn't mandatory and it just means Duo doesn't have it in the database. It could be because they want to ensure you know the proper uses of the pronouns. Not really an issue.


Okay, I put no ti oigo, tu mi oyes. When do I use ti and te because the suggestion said ti.


Wow that's confusing ._. thanks for the links! Wish that duo tried to explain this a big but the about.com website is great, so thanks again, I think I get the difference.


I answered "No le oigo, ¿oírme?" - should this be correct? I thought that after using a modal verb the following verbs can be used in full with object pronouns attached as suffixes...


GringoTzarr - not quite, because you are using the infinitive 'oir' you must include tú before to say who you are talking to. Otherwise you are saying I do not hear you, do hear me?


OK, read through all the other questions. Still don't quite get why 'Te me oye?' doesn't work. I have some tendency to want to know the less familiar form of these sentences which seem, often, to focus on familiar.


I'm not quite sure what you want to say. ¿Te me oye? doesn't make any sense to me. Te (informal you) and me are indirect object pronouns and oye is the present conjugation of oír for él, ella, Ud.

If you want to use the formal (Ud.) form; I think it would be something like this: No le oigo a Ud., ¿Me oye? Everything has to match up. (I didn't add the Ud. for the second part because it's implied by the first part.)

For the informal (tú) form: No te oigo, ¿Me oyes? (You do not have to specify because it's the only subject that will go with that conjugation of the verb (oyes). The same for te; it only matches up to so there's no need to specify. (You can add those for emphasis, but they're not required.)


Thanks, Daniel, for taking the time to go into some detail. I think a lot of my misunderstandings stem from trying to do more immersion than working at breaking the sentences down like I should. I was equating te w/ usted rather than with tu, and 'te me oye' made as much sense to me as 'tu me oyes'. It still does, but I now have a bit more understanding, thanks to you!


Except for using the familiar form of "you", my answer conforms to the above translation. However, duolingo indicated that the use of "te" proceeding "oigo" was incorrect. Duolingo gives the following solutions: No le escucho, ¿me oye? No te oigo, ¿tú me oyes?


Why does no come before te and not before oigo? I put "te no oigo" just need a little clarification on the ordering


I was watching a lesson on YouTube (I don't recall which exact video, but if you do a search on indirect objects in Spanish, you'll find several) and it said that in the case of negatives the indirect object pronoun always goes between the "no" and the verb.


What about "No te oigo, ¿me te oyes?" ??


You can't use te instead of : the first is an object pronoun; the second is a subject pronoun. In English, for "you", it's the same. But, think of the difference between he/him, she/her, we/us, they/them and I/me. This sometimes gets more complicated in English because of the difference between "textbook" English and "common" English (but please let's not get into that debate here).

Anyway, if you meant to write : No, it would have to go before the me. While Spanish is generally more flexible about word order than English, there are still some rules.



And, also, you can just leave out the subject pronoun () because it's the only subject that will go with that conjugation of the verb (oyes).


So the only way to ask "do you ____?" in Spanish is by adding a question mark to sentence that would otherwise be statement when writing or by changing your tone when speaking?


pretty much, yes ... and I don't say this to be picky, but it can make a difference in the way we look at the language: I think it's best not to see it as a "translation" of "do you" (or do/does whatever) but rather we often need the do/does to form a question in English, but this is how they form a question in Spanish. (I think it's so much easier for us to learn than for Spanish speakers trying to learn our way.)


Now, I wrote 'Te no oigo.' That was marked wrong, but is it OK to reverse the order of 'te' & 'no'?


No. I believe the indirect and direct object pronouns have to come right before the verb (unless they get attached to an infinitive, but that's a lesson further on).



Another Solution " No lo oigo a usted, ¿usted me oye a mí?


Difference between 'le' and 'los'?


why is no te oigo wrong?


May I say: " No oigo A TI, me oyes a mi?"


still. why "las" is wrong here


Yes as mentioned already, how are we supposed to know it's you plural?!


We don't know. It can be both. Singural you: "No te oigo, ¿tú me oyes?" Politeness form: "No le oigo [a Usted] ¿Usted me oye? Plural politeness form: "No les oigo [a Ustedes] ¿Ustedes me oyen? Plural you (Spain only): "No os oigo ¿me oís?


Why are these the possibilities: • No le oigo, ¿me oye? • No te oigo, ¿tú me oyes? But No te oigo, me oyes? is not accepted?


Ths is the hardest section for me


No t'oyes? Porque?


Had multiple choice, they were all correct... My question is how, "no los oigo a ustedes, ustedes me oyen?" is correct. What's with the "los"?


"me" is the direct object. Why it can't be after the verb ?

Wait..... it is exactly the same in french with the verb "entendre", my first language...........


This one was gell to figure out


Don't you use "les" instead of "los"?


No help from duolingo in this. .. not learnt anything for this other than cheat!


Very frustrating!




Really frustrates me when duolingo only accepts one version of 'you' without giving any indication which version it's looking for.

No te oigo, me oye, is a perfectly acceptable translation which gets marked wrong.


Do not say this:

- ¿Me se escucha?

- No te se oye.

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