"I do not hear you, do you hear me?"
Translation:No te oigo, ¿tú me oyes?
Well, DL rules, I do not know. Grammatically, yes, it is a mistake not to write ¿ at the beginning.
It might sound odd such things, but it simply a convention that has been used. As Daniel-in-BC mentioned above, the transition to a question when there is no period might be a bit odd. In Spanish that is solved by the ¿/¡ and a comma. I do believe semi colon might be used and obviously a period, which requires capital letter afterwards. I am not so sure whether you have to use alsways capital after ¿/¡ though... I always feel guilty not to :$
Not exactly the same meaning ("Can you hear me?" rather than "Do you hear me?"). Grammatically, your question would need to be ¿puedes oírme? Two reasons, you follow conjugated verbs with infinitives, and indirect/direct object pronouns are then attached to the infinitive that follows. Does that make sense?
And your not alone. I have reached the level where we are learning a lot of new verb and now adding in past tense. I will say that I had a hard time with clitic pronouns but I've gotten into the swing of things now. Mind you I make a lot of mistakes but learning here is so much better than in a classroom. Who cares if I make a mistake, just do it over and over as needed. I will still get there some day.
Well said. I'm working harder than usual here but enjoying the process regardless of the mistakes I'm making. I've recorded some of the exercises in this section so that I can really study then in light of what I'm learning about 'Object pronouns'. Congratulations to all those who take the time to add questions/comments/suggestions to these forums.
Ya know... the fact that this thing gets nit picky about random details used to really frustrate me. Now, given just how !@#$ complicated Indirect Object Pronouns and Direct Object Pronouns are.... it's really nice to know I'm being honked at for mispellings/wrong word/wrong gender instead of fundamental grammar issues.
(I got 'tu' and 'te' mixed up... and the last one, I misspelled "respecto")
I get frustrated at myself about the random details - but those are the things that distinguish educated from uneducated English speakers, native speakers from non-native speakers. You get the meaning when someone says "I heard he", instead of "I heard him" but your perception of the speaker changes.
'ti' is a prepositional pronoun. http://spanish.about.com/od/pronouns/a/prep_pronouns.htm
'te' is a direct/indirect pronoun. http://spanish.about.com/cs/grammar/a/objectpronouns.htm
I'm not quite sure what you want to say. ¿Te me oye? doesn't make any sense to me. Te (informal you) and me are indirect object pronouns and oye is the present conjugation of oír for él, ella, Ud.
If you want to use the formal (Ud.) form; I think it would be something like this: No le oigo a Ud., ¿Me oye? Everything has to match up. (I didn't add the Ud. for the second part because it's implied by the first part.)
For the informal (tú) form: No te oigo, ¿Me oyes? (You do not have to specify tú because it's the only subject that will go with that conjugation of the verb (oyes). The same for te; it only matches up to tú so there's no need to specify. (You can add those for emphasis, but they're not required.)
Thanks, Daniel, for taking the time to go into some detail. I think a lot of my misunderstandings stem from trying to do more immersion than working at breaking the sentences down like I should. I was equating te w/ usted rather than with tu, and 'te me oye' made as much sense to me as 'tu me oyes'. It still does, but I now have a bit more understanding, thanks to you!
You can't use te instead of tú: the first is an object pronoun; the second is a subject pronoun. In English, for "you", it's the same. But, think of the difference between he/him, she/her, we/us, they/them and I/me. This sometimes gets more complicated in English because of the difference between "textbook" English and "common" English (but please let's not get into that debate here).
Anyway, if you meant to write tú: No, it would have to go before the me. While Spanish is generally more flexible about word order than English, there are still some rules.
And, also, you can just leave out the subject pronoun (tú) because it's the only subject that will go with that conjugation of the verb (oyes).
pretty much, yes ... and I don't say this to be picky, but it can make a difference in the way we look at the language: I think it's best not to see it as a "translation" of "do you" (or do/does whatever) but rather we often need the do/does to form a question in English, but this is how they form a question in Spanish. (I think it's so much easier for us to learn than for Spanish speakers trying to learn our way.)