Funny, but I was just now studying the difference between "voix" and "voie" because they both sound the same. When the sentence has to do with listening to a song or speaking, for example, you use "voix" and when the sentence is about a path, the way, then you use "voie." I'm sure you already know that (but for the newbies who don't). To me, they both sound exactly the same!
It is actually due to an error that has been programmed into the system which sees "he is" and "he has" both contracted to "he's" and now it cannot tell the difference. In correct English, one never contracts "he has" to "he's" when it means "possess"--only when it is used as an auxiliary verb in a compound verb tense. For this reason, BrE uses the expression "he's got" (he has got) but some people drop "got" and leave only "he's". In an effort to be inclusive, Duo accepts the (incorrect) contraction but it causes a great deal of consternation and aggravation.
Technically, you can shorten "he has" to "he's" in this sentence. It would sound odd in American English and a bit pompous in English English, but it's not incorrect. Think of the phrase "He's lost his way" or "He's gone." Both are contractions of "he has" which can be used in other sentences. It's just rarely done because it hits the ear strangely.
If you read the thread on this topic, you will see that we are well aware of that. "Has" may be contracted when it is used as an auxiliary verb. That is not a problem, regardless of how someone thinks it sounds. The problem is using a contraction of "has" when it means "to possess", e.g.,
- He's a new car
- He's a strawberry
- He's a big package of cookies
Such use may be acceptable in a local vernacular but they do not hold up to scrutiny for several reasons. 1) Instructors of British English (where this is sometimes used) agree that it is not correct.
Grammar instruction for British English: The verb "have" is often contracted in English, but when have is used for possession you cannot use a contraction, you should use "have got" instead (or simply avoid the contraction). For example:
- I've a pen, He's a pen. <=These are incorrect.
2) The contraction « 's » used without a past participle will be interpreted as "is" or even as an indicator of possession, depending on the context.
Any hints on when to use « beau » and when to use « joli » ? I realise that « beau » would describe the appearance of a person, « Il est beau. » "He is handsome." « Elle est belle. » "She is pretty."
But « Cette salade est jolie. » "That salad is pretty."
It seems every time I use « joli » IRL it is « beau » and vice-versa.
Except that in English "beautiful" is much stronger than "pretty". They're not interchangeable.
Which made me wonder at the translation here. In America (I can't vouch for British usage) if you like a singer you're much more likely to say that he has a "good voice" than a "beautiful voice", unless the singer is truly of professional quality.