"The flower in that garden is a perfect color."

Translation:Το λουλούδι σε εκείνο τον κήπο έχει ένα τέλειο χρώμα.

February 16, 2017

This discussion is locked.


My greek girlfriend says that "εκείνο" should have an "ν" in the end, thus "εκείνον τον κήπο". Because the grammatical rule says: a male pronoun/adjective in accusative form that is followed by a word starting with one of those: (κ, π, τ, ψ, ξ, μπ, ντ, γκ, τσ, τζ) -her exact words- has to get an -ον ending.


I thought that as well. Being a native speaker it sounds more natural to me to say "εκείνον" rather than "εκείνο".


I've also heard that it seems to be falling out of use (probably more so in speech). I came across this with άλλον, you can often hear it without the ν


Is ένα required here as it is often not needed?


I have the same question.


Same question for me. How to know when the indefinite article is necessary?


Same here. Why is ένα compulsory in this sentence?


It is not. In fact, the sentence sounds much more natural without it, but sometimes it's included to make translations easier to grasp for learners. It's better not to include it in such cases.


Could someone in the know reply to this query please.


I think English translation is wrong. It should be has instead of is.


Both are accepted answers.


Multiple choice just introduced me to άνθος. Is there an appreciable difference?


Άνθος is specifically the top part of the flower that blooms, that is the blossom. This word is also used to refer to the flower but it has a more formal meaning and it is usually used in poetry.

  • 2031

Why is this wrong .... Το λουλούδι στον κήπο εκείνο έχει ένα τέλειο χρώμα


It was added some time ago.


Did "το άνθος σε εκείνο τον κήπο έχει τέλειο χρώμα" deserve the red screen it got? Is "άνθος" never really used in ordinary modern Greek? Or was my version rejected because I skipped the "ένα" in front of "τέλειο χρώμα"?


Your sentence is correct and added now.


I suggest that in the English sentence the verb "is" be replaced by "has". It sounds better and is more accurate for the student to translate into Greek


When we had "has" English speakers insisted that we change it. And they were right. In English, you don't "have" color.


Thank you, troll1995. My mother tongue is not English.


I suppose you come from Spanish? I think that Spanish uses a similar construction. Coming from Greek, I also learned here, too, that you can't use the verb "to have" in English to describe color. It sounded so natural to me. :)


I agree with you. My mother tongue is Spanish and we use the verb "to have" to express the characteristic of something like "tiene color amarillo" (has yellow color) but we also say "el pasto es verde" (the lawn is green), in this case "amarillo" (yellow) acts as an adjective. In the first case it would be a direct object.


It's exactly the same as in Greek, if it helps you to think of it this way. Έχει κίτρινο χρώμα=tiene color amarillo and είναι κίτρινο=es amarillo. In English, unfortunately, you have to use the verb to be in either case.


Trying to find out why "σε αυτόν τον κήπο" is wrong. As in... Το λουλούδι σε αυτόν τον κήπο


It’s just that ‘αυτός’ means ‘this’ and ‘εκείνος’ means ‘that’.


I wrote "το λουλούδι σε εκείνον τον κήπο έχει ένα τέλειο χρώμα". What is wrong with it?


You've fallen victim of the final -ν (εκείνον), which is dropped in Standard Modern Greek, in this case at least. Mind you, it took me a few minutes to find what the problem is and confirm the rule, so don't worry about making a mistake, your answer is fine in reality, just not what the current grammar book teaches. :)

Learn Greek in just 5 minutes a day. For free.