I think it's possible. Because "tener miedo" can be followed by either "a" or "de", but from what I've seen, "le" isn't usually included in the sentence if you use "de"... http://forum.wordreference.com/showthread.php?t=369812, http://forum.wordreference.com/showthread.php?t=639859
It's because it's indirect in Spanish. The Spanish version of "you are afraid of him" would be "tienes miedo a él", the "a él" is an indirect object, and indirect objects require the indirect object pronoun, so we add in the "le" to make it grammatically correct. I'm not sure about the English version, I don't think "him" is indirect in this sentence, but at the very least it's indirect in the Spanish one.
It should be accepted.
As roozimmer explains, there is a notion of "you fear him" that is along the lines of "you respect him" (so much that you are really careful about what you do, for example), and is not really synonymous with "you are afraid of him". But "you fear him" can also be fully synonymous with "you are afraid of him" and thus your answer still seems legitimate to me.
I noticed if I clicked on tengo it highlights 'me tengo miedo' and defines it as 'you are afraid' or 'you are fearful'. So I got thinking about the word 'fear'. I am clearly not a grammarian. But I did find the phrase "tener miedo" in my dictionary as a verbal phrase that fits this sentence. If you construct a sentence using fear as a noun then I can see 'a' being placed before it but I don't think so for use as a verb. Hope this helps.
Le is so foreign to us because we don't need it in English. I am going to word this in my own simple way. "Le tienes miedo a él". Hidden in the verb tienes is 'You the subject and have' so then we need to know the 'what' answer 'afraid' = subject verb and object. I know 'to have fear' is again a new concept. Now the tricky part. We want to add an indirect object to tell us the"who" are we afraid of. We do that in two parts. First we will tell you 'who' by placing it before the verb as a pronoun. It must always precede the verb, its a rule. I think of it like the pronoun is standing in for "who is the object of this sentence'. In this sentence I think of the preposition before him as my signal to know that I need an indirect object pronoun before the verb. And that is 'le' .
The whole "to have fear" type thing isn't really a weird concept to me (tengo dos anos, tengo hambre). I think I was thinking of the sentence somewhat like "you fear him" which sounds direct like "you see him" would be but in this sentence it isn't the case so I should of completely understood "le".
[You] (to him/her/it/you) have fear (to him). Here is how I worked this out.
(You) have fear. That's the first component phrase of the sentence I focus upon.
Then I see "a él", I know that means "to him".
Now I have, (You) have fear to him. I must know that "tienes" is the form of the verb that applies to "you".
Now I know that "Le" preceeding the verb is the indirect object pronoun that compliments or works with "a él" to reinforce the identification of the indirect object, and really, this is unambiguous, it's kind of refreshing when you start to understand this and implement it firmly.
Quote: "Then I see "a él", I know that means "to him"." ===========================
"a" as a preposition OFTEN means "to" but not always. The "a" in this casa is just a grammatical feature of Spanish ... every indirect object must be proceeded by "a" Since this "a" exists in Spanish only because of grammar rules, and this rule does not exist in English grammar, it is not possible to translate this "a" literally into English.
Often an indirect object in Spanish is the person who receives something. For example:
Mi hermano le dio un libro (a él)
My brother gave him a book. The (a él) is optional, but the "le" is compulsory when the indirect object is a simple pronoun as "él" would be here, if included.
However, many times indirect objects are not the recipient of something. They can be, as is the case here, a participant who is involved in the sentence...involved by suffering something, doing something, receiving something, taking something, etc.
In "Le tienes miedo a él" There is already a subject (Tú, although it is unstated ... just parts of the verb conjugation ... tienes. There is a direct object (miedo) So, if you want to involve someone else in this sentence (who causes the fear in this case) you can do it by using an indirect object.
Or, in this particular case, you can say basically the same thing by saying. Tienes miedo de él. Now, by using a preposition other than "a" which in this case is "de", "el" is no longer an indirect object grammatically ... it is an object of a preposition.
Note that sometimes "a" can be a "normal preposition", but in some cases it is just a grammatical connector. If it is a "normal preposition" it is usually translated as "to" but if it is a grammatical connect it will often be untranslatable or it can be translated as to, from, of, for, by, etc.
Yes, "le" is used for both genders, and you can add in "a él" or "a ella" to clarify whether you're talking to a male or female, but context will usually tell you who you're referring to. You're confusing direct object pronouns and indirect object pronouns however. "lo" is a direct object pronoun, it's feminine equivalent is "la", "le" is the indirect object pronoun, and as mentioned before, it is used for both genders. Here are some link that will hopefully be of use to you.
since él is proceed by "a" this makes it an indirect object in this case. The "le" is the indirect object pronoun and is required in the sentence while "a él" is optional.
In English, the indirect object is usually a person benefiting from an action John gave him a book. Him is the indirect object, the recipient of the action, the person who benefited from the action.
In Spanish, an indirect object can be a recipient, someone suffering, someone involved as a contributor or giver, etc.
Le compré un libro a ella.
Can either mean "I bought a book for her (to give to her) or I bought a book from her ... she sold me the book. Only from context, will you know which meaning to understand.
Here .... "el" is the indirect object who is "giving" or "causing" the fear to you. This is particularly difficult for English speakers to understand because, as far as I know, there is no easy way to explain it ... but I will try.
Just as the person I bought the book from is an indirect object in Spanish (I received a book from this person) in this case you receive fear from "él / him. "
Another good example of the type of relationship that an indirect object can have in a Spanish sentence is with the verb robar. The person doing the stealing is the subject, the thing stolen is the direct object and the person who is robbed is the indirect object. This grammar can not be duplicated in English.
You can say:
She gave him a book.
But you cannot say:
She robbed him a book. OR
But in Spanish you can say:
Ella le robó un libro a él.