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  5. "Le tienes miedo a él."

"Le tienes miedo a él."

Translation:You are afraid of him.

February 22, 2013



i only hear "la" tienes miedo not "le"...


What's wrong with "you are frightened of him"?


Nothing. You should report it as a correct answer.


They accepted "You are afraid of him."


It's the same with age. You 'have' 25 years, instead of 'being 25 years old', at least in Spanish it's been used like that. I know in French it's the same, maybe in all Roman languages? Think twice before you write down your answer on this one ;)


That's true... It's weird to say that someone "has fear," but it is correct.


Can we replace the "a" in this sentence with "de"? That is, can we say "Le tienes miedo de él,"?


I think it's possible. Because "tener miedo" can be followed by either "a" or "de", but from what I've seen, "le" isn't usually included in the sentence if you use "de"... http://forum.wordreference.com/showthread.php?t=369812, http://forum.wordreference.com/showthread.php?t=639859


Thank you so much for linking to something useful. This question has been sitting here for a few months now and all I've had were a few people giving it their best guess.


Great link, gracias.


No, I don't think so. The "le" and the "a él" go together. This sentence makes use of the indirect object.


You can say: "Le tienes miedo a él" or "Tienes miedo de él".


I don't think so. "de él" is usually not used because it's two E's following each other. The 'e' at the end of 'de' and the beginning of 'él'. That's why they use 'a' to break that up.


why "le" ? I do not see how being afraid of "Him" is indirect. Please help?


It's because it's indirect in Spanish. The Spanish version of "you are afraid of him" would be "tienes miedo a él", the "a él" is an indirect object, and indirect objects require the indirect object pronoun, so we add in the "le" to make it grammatically correct. I'm not sure about the English version, I don't think "him" is indirect in this sentence, but at the very least it's indirect in the Spanish one.


"You fear him" was not accepted. Is it really wrong?


It should be accepted.

As roozimmer explains, there is a notion of "you fear him" that is along the lines of "you respect him" (so much that you are really careful about what you do, for example), and is not really synonymous with "you are afraid of him". But "you fear him" can also be fully synonymous with "you are afraid of him" and thus your answer still seems legitimate to me.


"You have fear of him" is one of the correct responses, but that seems really weird phrasing to me. Is there a particular reason why "You have a fear of him" isn't accepted as an answer?


maybe it would have to be "un miedo" to be translated as "a fear"


I noticed if I clicked on tengo it highlights 'me tengo miedo' and defines it as 'you are afraid' or 'you are fearful'. So I got thinking about the word 'fear'. I am clearly not a grammarian. But I did find the phrase "tener miedo" in my dictionary as a verbal phrase that fits this sentence. If you construct a sentence using fear as a noun then I can see 'a' being placed before it but I don't think so for use as a verb. Hope this helps.


Sounds perfectly correct to me.


How would I translate the sentence... "You have fear FOR him"? As in, you fear for his safety. Thanks


You could say "tengo miedo por él", but that sounds weird. It would mean something along the lines of you are scared in his place. If you mean you are worried about him then you would say "estoy preocupado por él".


How do you say - are you afraid of him. Because that is what I put.


That should be correct, report it.


Is it also possible to say: "A él le tienes miedo"?


Wait. What? Why is this used with tienes instead of estás?


Fear is something you "have" when expressed this way. Same with hunger and thirst. Tengo hambre, etc. Another set of expressions you just gotta learn. ;)


can somone please explain how do i know when to use'' Le'' and when to use ''Te'' ?.


By now you may have found it but if not check at the beginning page of this module under Tips. It's a good overview but if like me you will do additional research to get a better grip of relative/indirect/direct pronouns.


including "Tu" (with an accent over the u) before le is just unnecessary right?. I really need a good explanation for why this is le and not lo, la or te for that matter?


Le is so foreign to us because we don't need it in English. I am going to word this in my own simple way. "Le tienes miedo a él". Hidden in the verb tienes is 'You the subject and have' so then we need to know the 'what' answer 'afraid' = subject verb and object. I know 'to have fear' is again a new concept. Now the tricky part. We want to add an indirect object to tell us the"who" are we afraid of. We do that in two parts. First we will tell you 'who' by placing it before the verb as a pronoun. It must always precede the verb, its a rule. I think of it like the pronoun is standing in for "who is the object of this sentence'. In this sentence I think of the preposition before him as my signal to know that I need an indirect object pronoun before the verb. And that is 'le' .


The whole "to have fear" type thing isn't really a weird concept to me (tengo dos anos, tengo hambre). I think I was thinking of the sentence somewhat like "you fear him" which sounds direct like "you see him" would be but in this sentence it isn't the case so I should of completely understood "le".


[You] (to him/her/it/you) have fear (to him). Here is how I worked this out.

(You) have fear. That's the first component phrase of the sentence I focus upon.

Then I see "a él", I know that means "to him".

Now I have, (You) have fear to him. I must know that "tienes" is the form of the verb that applies to "you".

Now I know that "Le" preceeding the verb is the indirect object pronoun that compliments or works with "a él" to reinforce the identification of the indirect object, and really, this is unambiguous, it's kind of refreshing when you start to understand this and implement it firmly.


Quote: "Then I see "a él", I know that means "to him"." ===========================

"a" as a preposition OFTEN means "to" but not always. The "a" in this casa is just a grammatical feature of Spanish ... every indirect object must be proceeded by "a" Since this "a" exists in Spanish only because of grammar rules, and this rule does not exist in English grammar, it is not possible to translate this "a" literally into English.

Often an indirect object in Spanish is the person who receives something. For example:

Mi hermano le dio un libro (a él)
My brother gave him a book. The (a él) is optional, but the "le" is compulsory when the indirect object is a simple pronoun as "él" would be here, if included.

However, many times indirect objects are not the recipient of something. They can be, as is the case here, a participant who is involved in the sentence...involved by suffering something, doing something, receiving something, taking something, etc.

In "Le tienes miedo a él" There is already a subject (Tú, although it is unstated ... just parts of the verb conjugation ... tienes. There is a direct object (miedo) So, if you want to involve someone else in this sentence (who causes the fear in this case) you can do it by using an indirect object.

Or, in this particular case, you can say basically the same thing by saying. Tienes miedo de él. Now, by using a preposition other than "a" which in this case is "de", "el" is no longer an indirect object grammatically ... it is an object of a preposition.

Note that sometimes "a" can be a "normal preposition", but in some cases it is just a grammatical connector. If it is a "normal preposition" it is usually translated as "to" but if it is a grammatical connect it will often be untranslatable or it can be translated as to, from, of, for, by, etc.


this is the same conjugation as he/she... it marked it as a wrong answer


No, it isn't. It says tienes. The subject cannot be he/she with the s at the end of that verb.


The sentence says "de él" so it has to be "him"


Why " You make him afraid " is wrong?


Because we would say "you make him afraid" is English, also, "tienes miedo" mean YOU are afraid, the guy is not afraid "you" are. To say "you make him afraid/he's afraid of you" you would say "le das miedo a él".


sentences like these are why spanish needs some major improvements


why is "he scares you" wrong? Is there a specific meaning to "miedo" that distinguishes between frightened and scared?


You better be!


I am struggling with this. I thought that Lo tienes miedo a el was You are afraid of him/it. And Le tienes miedo a ella was You are afraid of her. Do we use LE TIENES for both genders, and the A EL and A ELLA delineate which?


Yes, "le" is used for both genders, and you can add in "a él" or "a ella" to clarify whether you're talking to a male or female, but context will usually tell you who you're referring to. You're confusing direct object pronouns and indirect object pronouns however. "lo" is a direct object pronoun, it's feminine equivalent is "la", "le" is the indirect object pronoun, and as mentioned before, it is used for both genders. Here are some link that will hopefully be of use to you.







Me, te, le y le ud). Me, you, him, you-formal. He fears him.


why is it le and not te


since él is proceed by "a" this makes it an indirect object in this case. The "le" is the indirect object pronoun and is required in the sentence while "a él" is optional.

In English, the indirect object is usually a person benefiting from an action John gave him a book. Him is the indirect object, the recipient of the action, the person who benefited from the action.

In Spanish, an indirect object can be a recipient, someone suffering, someone involved as a contributor or giver, etc.

For example:

Le compré un libro a ella.

Can either mean "I bought a book for her (to give to her) or I bought a book from her ... she sold me the book. Only from context, will you know which meaning to understand.

Here .... "el" is the indirect object who is "giving" or "causing" the fear to you. This is particularly difficult for English speakers to understand because, as far as I know, there is no easy way to explain it ... but I will try.

Just as the person I bought the book from is an indirect object in Spanish (I received a book from this person) in this case you receive fear from "él / him. "

Another good example of the type of relationship that an indirect object can have in a Spanish sentence is with the verb robar. The person doing the stealing is the subject, the thing stolen is the direct object and the person who is robbed is the indirect object. This grammar can not be duplicated in English.

You can say:
She gave him a book.

But you cannot say:

She robbed him a book. OR

But in Spanish you can say:

Ella le robó un libro a él.


This would be better as a question, not as a statement or comment in my opinion. Cause I put "Do you fear him?" And it said it was incorrect.


why cant i say you are feeling afriad of him :(


Could you just say "Tienes miedo de él" or no?


Yes you can. And in this case, including "le" in the sentence would be incorrect since "él" is the object of the preposition "de" and it not an indirect object.

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