Translation:The woman has been listening to the song since the morning.
I'm a little confused by this sentence. Isn't 'ακούει' present tense? Any help would be appreciated.
I agree. I would have expected it to be: η γυναίκα έχει ακούσει το τραγούδι από το πρωί
I think this teaches us that Greek grammar is different. Greeks would say "she is listening from this morning" where in English we would say "she has been listening all morning".
I would be interested in learning more about when to expect this difference. Are there any resources?
As someone already pointed out, "the woman has been listening to the song since morning" should also be accepted.
If ☆the woman hears the song from the morning☆ is wrong
How would you say this in Greek
The way the English sentence is phrased doesn't really make sense - should it be "has been listening" instead?
What is the most natural way to say "The woman has been listening to the song since this morning" in Greek? (note: I wrote "this morning" not "the morning"). I'm guessing "αυτό το πρωί" is acceptable, but I'm wondering what is more common? In my opinion, in English "this morning" sounds more natural than "the morning" unless you're actually referring to some other day's morning. Again, both English phrases are correct, but the first sounds more common and natural to my American ears :)
Jay, We are talking more English than Greek here. I hope the discussion doesn't bother others. The definite article makes the word definite, and context provides what definite is. Lacking anything else in the context, it is today. Thus "the morning", "the day" "the evening" all refer to today. I do not need to say "this." So "this morning" becomes to my American ear slightly more emphatic.
Similarly, with "the house", "the car", etc. they refer to "my house", "my car".
The literal translation is ´The woman hears the song from the morning´. Why is it marked wrong? In any case the given translation has the wrong tense of the verb.
In any case the given translation has the wrong tense of the verb.
The translation given is in fact correct. 'Has been listening' can only be translated as ακούει in Greek. Έχει ακούσει = has heard/listened. The continuous aspect just does not translate.
The literal translation is ´The woman hears the song from the morning´. Why is it marked wrong?
'From the morning' does not make much sense as a starting point of a continued activity, does it? It should be "since (then)".
'Since' is often expressed like this in other languages. Spanish: Yo vivo aquí desde hace 3 años. French: J'habite ici il y a 3 années. But i agree that it would be good with a lesson about this sort of expression. But now we know that is the expressions means "since" the verb is in present tense, even though we English speakers (but not French or Spanish or ??? speakers) think of it as a present perfect until we get used to it.
To express an action that started in the past but is still ongoing you use the present perfect continuous.
'From' is not correct in this case, please see similar examples here http://speakspeak.com/resources/english-grammar-rules/various-grammar-rules/since-for-from
"since morning" is right. "since the morning" does not sound natural in English
The translation "The woman has been listening to the song since the morning." takes ακούει as present continuous, and so does most of the discussion. But why does the Greek not allow a simple present. "The woman is listening to the song from the morning." That is, the woman heard the song in the morning, and it has just come on the radio again. "The woman is listening to the song (now) from the morning (when she heard it first).