"Pero me parece que es hora de partir."
Translation:But it seems to me that it is time to leave.
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Is the "to me" necessary? It wasn't in another sentence that used "me parece" and it is essentially the same thing in English.
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I am not native English speaker so I might be wrong, IMHO the word "but" here indicates "I" am having a discussion (argument?) with someone that they have different opinions, so the "to me" is necessary to show who's point of view it is and for emphasizing.
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I think it is. Me parece can be either "it seems to me" or I think. If it were just "it seems" then there would be no me just "parece."
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I wrote "But it seems to me that it is time to split." and was counted incorrect. I suppose that they mean the same thing although in English I think the use of "split" to mean "leave" would be considered very informal (I am from USA). Anyone have thoughts on this? Is the connotation the same in English and Spanish. OR is the use of "partir" used just like this as well as to mean "to split/slice/cut in half/etc."?
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I am not real sure i understand the use of the third person for Parecer. I wonder why we would not use "parezco" instead of "parece" since it is "me" who it seems.
IT seems. "It" is 3rd person singular.
Parezco would be "I seem" Me parezco would be "I seem to me"
Parecerse is a verb like gustar - it is not conjugated based on the subject, but rather the object.
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I had the same question as jmiker54. I thought because it seemed to ME that one would use parezco also. Thank you for explaining that IT is 3rd person singular.
I think it goes with the "es hora" -- "es hora de _" means that "it is time for " or "it is time to ___"
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Es hora de = It's time to __. Ex. It's time to sleep. Es hora de dormir. It's time to eat. Es hora de comer. It's time to dance. Es hora de bailar.
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I had "But it seems to me that it is NOW time to leave". Would that count?
Is the ME before Parece an Indirect Object? And is any pronoun before PARECER going to be an Indirect Object? Ex. "It looks (to me), It seems (to you) etc...
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Yeah, the "me" is an Indirect Object Pronoun. http://spanish.about.com/od/usingparticularverbs/a/parecer.htm
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I wrote "it looks to me like time to leave." Can someone please tell me why that's wrong?
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In the UK 'to split' would mean to break up (into pieces) - Unless You are very young and use 'text speak' and are talking with someone of the same generation. Safer to stick with 'leave' or just 'go now'
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Yes, I've seen "me parece" to mean basically, "it seems to me, it appears to me, in my opinion, I think, etc." A very common question is "qué te parece?" which means, "what do you think?" (about something)
I wrote "But it seems to me that is the time to leave"; is the "it" absolutely necessary?
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Hello Chris913144: I think the que does mean "that" here. Pero (but), me parece (it appears/seems to me), que (that), es hora de partir (it is time to leave).
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I wrote ''But to me it seems to be time to leave''. Not accepted, reported 2018.10.25
