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  5. "She has not seen him since s…

"She has not seen him since seven years ago."

Translation:Ella no lo ha visto desde hace siete años.

February 24, 2013



Since seven years ago?? Wonder what was wrong with plain old "for seven years".


Why is 'a el' included in the lesson, but not in the translation here. What's the rule? Seems like including both 'lo' and 'a el' is doubling up.


Why is "Ella no lo ha visto a él desde siete años hace" not correct? I don't understand why "hace" needs to be after "desde" instead; it makes less sense to me that way. Would someone please explain?


"hace" gives the sense of "ago", but literally it means "it makes" thus the phrase follows the usual sentence structure. If one said "dos horas hace" it would sound like Yoda:)


some things you do just because that's the way it is done ;) "desde hace" means "for," as in for five days, or "since ---time---ago." desde = "from" and hace = "it makes" I haven't seen from, it makes two years. That sort of thing, as near as I can tell.


It is simple: hace siete anos = seven years ago; desde = since; so desde hace siete anos = since seven years ago


I still don't haven't gotten a good explanation for lo/le for clitic pronouns. Why are "Ella no le ha visto desde hace siete años" and "Ella no lo ha visto a él desde hace siete años" both correct but the latter, without the personal "a", isn't?


I don´t think the first example is right. "Le" is the dative case for masculine and feminine: le doy means I give to her/him. "Lo" or "la" is the accusative case where "lo" applies to masculine or neuter genders and "la" to the feminine: lo doy means I give him/it. Altogether: se lo doy -- I give him/it to her/him:) As you may know the first le changes to se when two such pronouns appear in a row.


That's very helpful, thank you!


Hmmm...it's funny DuoLingo just said that "Ella no le ha visto a él desde hace siete años." and "Ella no lo ha visto a él desde hace siete años." are both correct. No sé por qué...


I would recommend that you pretend that did not happen:) since 'le' is technically incorrect, but you can read about 'leísmo' on wikipedia or even better on RAE dot es (essentially, if enough people say it wrong then it becomes right).


hehe Yeah, everything I had learned before that told me that wasn't correct, so I wasn't quite going to let one sentence change much. But thanks, there certainly is that kind of stuff happening with English, so that makes sense of it. :)


I have many times heard that Spanish is an easy language to learn.

Ella no lo ha visto a él desde hace siete años.


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I asked someone about Russian. He said you don’t have to worry about articles. Wow! And there is no verb “to be” in the present tense. How great is that? And the simple past is really easy.

Then he said “that’s the end of the good news. The rest is awful”.

At least with Spanish, if it ends in –ion or –al you’ve probably got it knocked. Most of the hard stuff is literally in the kitchen.


Now that is funny. Thanks for this post. I love the honesty from your Russian friend. I think when cavemen tribes separated and started grunting differently the days of easily learning each others languages were over. I have a bunch of respect for folks that are fluent in a lot of languages. I am trying to be a member of that group.


How weird would I sound if I used the word order "no lo ha visto a él desde siete años hace" ?


mrule, Yes you would definitely sound weird. The above official Spanish translation is the correct one.


A person claiming to be a native Spanish speaker said he had never heard "desde hace" in his entire life in Chile'.


He should get out more often :-)


Is "desde" really necessary? Perhaps leaving it out would slightly change the English translation to "She hasn't seen him for seven years" (which sounds like a more natural English sentence, anyway) but I feel like it should be grammatically correct and carry the same general meaning. Right?

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