"She has not seen him since seven years ago."
Translation:Ella no lo ha visto desde hace siete años.
I don´t think the first example is right. "Le" is the dative case for masculine and feminine: le doy means I give to her/him. "Lo" or "la" is the accusative case where "lo" applies to masculine or neuter genders and "la" to the feminine: lo doy means I give him/it. Altogether: se lo doy -- I give him/it to her/him:) As you may know the first le changes to se when two such pronouns appear in a row.
I asked someone about Russian. He said you don’t have to worry about articles. Wow! And there is no verb “to be” in the present tense. How great is that? And the simple past is really easy.
Then he said “that’s the end of the good news. The rest is awful”.
At least with Spanish, if it ends in –ion or –al you’ve probably got it knocked. Most of the hard stuff is literally in the kitchen.
Now that is funny. Thanks for this post. I love the honesty from your Russian friend. I think when cavemen tribes separated and started grunting differently the days of easily learning each others languages were over. I have a bunch of respect for folks that are fluent in a lot of languages. I am trying to be a member of that group.
Is "desde" really necessary? Perhaps leaving it out would slightly change the English translation to "She hasn't seen him for seven years" (which sounds like a more natural English sentence, anyway) but I feel like it should be grammatically correct and carry the same general meaning. Right?