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"La niña depende de sus padres."

Translation:The girl depends on her parents.

February 24, 2013

40 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/TilEulenspiegel

If the full verb structure is "depende de", meaning "depends on", that is what should be highlighted here, not just the verb "depende". The same is true with verbs that require the "a" when the object of the action is a person, which is a basic element of Spanish grammar, if I understand correctly.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/johannabanana

it marked me wrong for 'the girl depends upon her parents'.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Felinagrace

Duolingo accepted "The girl depends on her fathers."


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/emeraldwise

why use 'de' instead of 'a' in this instance?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/rspreng

Depende de = "to rely on That's just the way it is


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/rosbaran

But it was "depende en " somewhere else!


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/droma

I think that "depende en" also can be translated as "depends on"


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/mitaine56

emeraldwise- we use personal A before an animated noun when it's a direct object. Here parents is , indirect.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/khanhha0601

I don't understand why "parents" is indirect. I came across this sentence "Ella ayuda a su madre." So what's the difference here?! Is it like in the parents case, the girl depends e.g. on her parents for food, money but not the parents physically so it's indirect?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/jfGor

The difference is that 'ayudar' is a transitive verb and requires a direct object. Depender is an intransitive verb and does not take a direct object.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/SusannaEDavis420

jfgordy, how can we know whether a verb is transitive or intransitive? Should we memorize lists? Is there a place on the Internet or some clue in the sentence? I'm not finding this on the Web. Thank you for any help!


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/PabloSueno

Firstly, I don't know of any master list, but the dictionary will tell you whether a verb is transitive through the abbreviations (vi) for verb-intransitive and (vt) for verb transitive. But secondly, I don't think there is either a direct or indirect object here. The parents are the objects of a prepositional phrase beginning with "de". This analysis leads to the same result, though. There is no direct object and therefor no personal "a", which is only used for direct objects.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/jfGor

Susanna, it is too much to explain here, but I will give you a couple of reverences for you to read. The best online dictionary IMO is http://www.spanishdict.com/translate/to%20look .

The good thing is most transitive and intransitive verbs are the same in English as in Spanish. But BEWARE there are many exceptions, so it is best to use the dictionary.

I do have a reference that I think will help you.

http://spanish.about.com/od/verbs/a/transitive.htm

http://snarkygrammarguide.blogspot.com/2010/10/verbs-intransitive-vs-transitive.html

Hope this helps.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/PabloSueno

jfgordy. I wonder if you could help me with a question that has been bothering me for a while. Several times I've seen people make the argument in connection with personal 'a' that if the verb is intransitive, the object can't be a direct object and therefore must be indirect (and therefore not take the personal a). But one of my books has the following sentence: " In order to have an indirect object in a sentence, there must be a direct object, either real or implied." But that implies that an intransitive verb could never carry an indirect object either!!?? Can you clarify this for me?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/jfGor

Thanks for asking me although I am not at all an expert, but intransitive verbs do not have objects.

Indirect objects answer the question "To whom?" or "For whom? the action of the verb is performed.

The IO tells us where the DO is going, so if there is not a DO, there can't be an indirect object unless the DO is implied.

Ex: She writes him every week. Him is the IO and the DO is an implied 'DO' which is 'letter'.

As you have said already, you can infer that intransitive verbs to not take DO's or IO's.

All though I hesitate to say never.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/PabloSueno

Thanks jfgordy. Your reply now occupies a place of honor in my grammar book.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/mitaine56

emeraldwise- a is a preposition for movement.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/lambdagamma

Why isn't "The girl is dependent on your parents" correct? Couldn't "sus" refer to "ustedes"? Thanks.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Johngt44

Oh thank you! I was longing for someone to ignore the obvious situation of a child being dependent on her parents and argue for being dependent on someone else's - his, your, their - completely unspecified.... Looked like i was getting to the end of the comments and it wasn't gonna happen but ....hooray!


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Johngiang

Why not "The girl depends on his parents" ...sus : not mention is masc or fem ?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/JGeorgetheMyst

"The girl depends on her fathers" was accepted...whoo! :D


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Pedro157D

"Upon" still not accepted


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/ken.goodwi

SMH.... so my answer is the girl depends on her parents and was tha apparently is not correct. The answer DL gives me is "fathers" WTH..is padres not mean parents as well? Wheres the context that implies fathers? Am i loco? I was pretty sure i was correct....


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/jfGor

The correct answer in the translation sentence above is 'The girl depends on her parents'. But, to be political correct in this day and age, one can say 'her fathers', if the parents are both male. There is nothing wrong with still saying 'her parents' even if it is known that both parents are of the same sex. It would work the same if both parents were female.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Metatard

Actually if ALL her parents were female the Spanish sentence would be different. (madres instead of padres)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/1Arellano

For a second I thought she had two fathers


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/miranda503938

Niña is also used very commonly as little girl. This should be correct


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/paulakbsp

Why not upon or am I too British in my thinking?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/thePEW

Can someone please explain his vs. hers


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Phelip

Yo también ;)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/cindy777951

I thought padres was masculine for father


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/ConnorBanks

i asked what it meant and it said up to


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/PeterRudmin

what about " the girl needs her parents"?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/SerenaKeslersp1

it said depende meant is up to so that is what i put


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/czb

Padres 'Fathers' in Spanish means parents, to translate directly would be fathers.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Mike262852

marked me correct for "the girl depends on her fathers'. I was thinking, how many fathers does she have????


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Cheol-Hwan

How come 'sus padres' means 'her parents' not 'her fathers?'


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Cheol-Hwan

How come 'sus padres' means her parents not her fathers?

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