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  5. "No, I do not feel like it."

"No, I do not feel like it."

Translation:Nein, mir ist nicht danach.

February 24, 2013



Hard to guess ! Is it a typical German expression ?


Yes, it's an idiom.


I think it should be in the idioms lesson then.


I agree. :( I have purposefully left the idioms lesson for later because it confuses me. It makes me very frustrated when Duolingo then inserts idioms into other lessons.


The problem with the idioms lesson is you are given a phrase in German like (and, I'm just making this up), "The cat finally naps", but the English equilivant is, "Every dog has his day." There is no direct translation...it's two different idioms with a similar intent.

How the hell is someone supposed to know that kind of information?!?


I can not thank all of you enough for these discussion sections. They at least give me an idea of what I am suppose to be getting from the exercise.


By taking Duo and finding out that is what is meant.


I find a lot of Duo's translations a bit loose. It seems to favour context over exact meaning in many cases imo.


Frustrating when trying to 'test' out of a level and then lots of new phrases/idioms appear for the first time!


What can you expect from free education.. Although you are forced ads after every lesson and strongly compelled into paid subscription..


It's almost as if they spend a lot of resources to make these lessons.


Yes, I have been waterboarded so many times trying to get me to sign up for paid subscription that I look like a prune. Oh wait, my wife just said I looked like a prune before I started with Duo.

Hmmm. maybe you are referring to the occasional page where I have to click on the no thanks button on the page that has a sentence saying that plus is available and that I would like it. Can you imagine? Who ever heard of a site offering a premium option?


Too many idioms for one skill


If its a common enough phrase i think it could be justified. Ive never seen it before personally, but i dont mind just memorizing it. Im also coming back and redoing lessons that got added on after i completed the course, so i cant speak for first time learners


I said: "Nein, ich habe keine Lust" and was accepted as correct. I'm wondering, which one would I be most likely to hear from a native German speaker?


Both are idiomatic. I'd say "Ich habe keine Lust" is more common.


But it is not accepted now. Is it wrong or what?


"keine lust" is correct, it literally translates to "i have no desire". I think this particular sentence is trying to teach that specific idiom though


Rammstein to the rescue again


He says it so fast though, "IchabkeineLust"


To he11 with potential down votes--this made me laugh out loud.


I love when I get to quote Rammstein :D


This should be the default correct answer


It is no more accepted 06.28.2015. Why?


Dunno. It is accepted now.


From something else I am reading I agree it's, Nein ich habe keine lust


Does it work the other way round, something like "mir ist danach", or "mir ist gut danach" to say "I feel like it"?


Yes, it's 'mir ist danach'. 'Mir ist gut danach' doesn't work.


I got the question right with the alternative "Nein, ich habe keine Lust." Danke schön, Rammstein!


I often consult my memorized Rammstein or Oomph lyrics to find the right answer.


I do think Duolingo should rethink hurling nonliteral idioms at learners in lessons not dedicated to them, especially when the first time one encounters it is in a "translate into German" question which basically leaves one with nowt but (impossible) guesswork


I like it. You will always come across these things in the real world and you'll be wrong the first few times. It makes the learning experience more natural.


And very error-prone as any "natural" learning ;) E.g. I still have no clue how "danach" fits in this sentence..


I accidentally hit enter after just typing "Nein," It accepted it XD


Can someone explain the literal translation of the idiom? The "danach" is throwing me...


I am also wonder that! According to Wiktionary, danach means ‘after it, after that, thereafter’ so...the literal translation is maybe ‘No, it is not after it to me’? I don’t know. Help?


I think it might be more along the lines of "No, I'm not after it", with "being after" something meaning seeking it. ("What are you after?" from bar staff means about the same as "What can I get you?")

It could be a regional usage in English, because I haven't heard it much since moving down South. Nothern idioms seem to line up with German a bit better though.


That's very useful/enlightening as I hear "What are you after?" and similar all the time.. Thanks


This is how I see it (not sure if it is correct):

The dative is used to express feelings or opinions, so in this context I think of the 'mir ist' as 'it feels to me...' or, less literal 'I feel...'

according to this link, danach can also mean a goal. so you might translate it with 'towards' or 'for' https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/german-english/danach

So I think you can see 'mir ist nicht danach' as 'I don't feel for it'.


Thank you - that's helpful: have a lingot.


How about "Das gefaellt mir nicht"?


I read that "gefallen" is mostly used with sights/views. So, if something is pleasing to your eye, you can use gefallen. But I am not sure.


"I'm not after it", I can see that as a kind of loose British translation...


Funny. I simply answered the pragmatic "Nein, Ich will nicht" and it accepted it :D was that a good approximation?


Well, I tried to translate it directly and chose 'darin' =No, I'm not into that. But should have gone for 'danach' =No, I'm not after that. Essential for the romantically inclined? BTW, what does 'Nein, mir ist nicht darin' mean? Another idiom perhaps?

[deactivated user]

    "nein, ich will es nicht" was accepted. Can that mean the same thing?


    it means "no, i dont want it"


    Yes, this question very tricky indeed and really a MOD or SME or someone who isn't just some rando taking the course should explain this. Unfortunately I am just some rando taking the course, but that won't stop me from giving it my best shot; take it or leave it. I'm going by two StackExchange posts here and here. The folks over at SE generally don't cite their sources, but I did find a mention in DWDS (next to the first chevron).

    This is an idiom, but there are several layers to it so this will take some explaining. First there is "mir ist" which is used with several adjectives (but not all) to say you're experiencing something; "Mir ist kalt" is the canonical example. The general formula is (Noun in Dative form) (sein in 3rd person singular) (adjective, but not every adjective can be used here). See the Usage note under meaning 2 in the Wiktionary entry for sein for more on this.

    Next comes 'nach', which, combined with the previous construction, means to be in the mood for, have a hankering for, a yen for, etc. One of the SE posts talks a lot about 'zumute' which means to be in the mood for; the root is 'Mut' which is cognate to English 'mood'. But apparently 'zumute' can be omitted or included without much change in meaning. E.g Mir ist nach Liebe (zumute). -- "I'm in the mood for love." Uns war nach Laufen (zumute). -- "We felt like walking." Perhaps the 'zumute' was once required but eventually became optional, or maybe the two versions had more different meanings once but have since converged, it's hard for me to say for sure.

    Finally there is 'da'. If what you may or may not be hankering for has already been mentioned in the current scope of the conversation then it's natural to use a pronoun, but since this is German you turn the 'nach' into its pronominal variant 'danach' Combining that with the rest gives Mir ist danach (zumute). Now throw in a 'Nein' and a 'nicht' to get the entire sentence.


    Thanks a lot for your kindly explanation and your time! I think yours is the best one given in this section. Now finally the idiom is really easy to memorize! Get some lingots!


    impossibile to remember! "Ich habe kein lust" it's definitely better


    What do you mean, "better"?


    "Nein, ich habe kein Bock" is not accepted. Is there any reason?


    The correct accusative is "keinen Bock haben". Please note that the expression is very colloquial teen language. I wouldn't use it.


    Thank you for the explanation!


    "Nein, ich habe keinen Bock" is not accepted (Feb 2021)


    What about 'Nein, ich fühle es nicht'? It said the answer was 'Nein, ich will es nicht'


    I think this sentence is supposed to mean "I don't feel like doing it" rather than "I don't feel myself to be something". Confused me too


    Well this one popped out of nowhere


    We have a similar expression in Egyptian Arabic: نفسي مش رايحة لها


    Which literally translates to: "my appetite is not going to it."


    this should be in the idioms section


    Why not, "Nein, ich habe keine Lust"? I believe it is used more often, is a more flexible phrase, and is about as accurate as Duo's translation.


    Yes the idiom section should be increased. Also, there should be a section or two for separable verbs. I might be nitpicking too much here.


    where is the subject in the translation????


    Ich fuhle nicht wie es , why wrong , explain please


    It's a literal word by word translation. That's not how English natives would interpret the sentence.


    How about: "Ich mochte es nicht"?


    .... "mich nicht zu hassen"


    There's usually a rhyme or reason behind idioms, but this one baffles me. "After it is not to me"? I can't make sense of that.


    Ich interessiere mich nicht dafür. Would this work?


    Why is "Nein, das passt mir nicht" wrong?


    "no, me is not then" o.O?


    Ich habe kein Bock darauf.


    Should be in the idiom section


    Why is it 'mir'? Why the dative I mean.


    Nein, ich habe keine Lust dazu


    wouldn't "nein, ich bin nicht zumute" also work for this?


    Ich fühle nicht wie es, anyone?


    If this is an idiom it should have a idiom section


    This wouldn't be the first out of place idiom found in lessons. It really throws the group because it doesn't follow any rules or make sense. That, of course, is when we discover it's an idiom!
    Just look up "danach" on dict.cc...scroll down the list...yes, lots of after stuff...then:
    "I felt like it." [idiom] - Mir war danach.

    Oh, have some fun and look further down for "Pille danach"!


    Please help me understand this statement. Literally, I read, "me it is not then". How does this become, "I do not feel like it"?


    I think it has something to do with danach being a translation for something 'in accordance'.

    So a literal translation (yes something still feels missing) knowing such could be:

    "to me/ is (it) not in accordance"

    An alternative, more intuitive, way for us to say this would be:

    "Ich habe kein Lust mehr" - I'm not in the mood.

    Look to Colins under danach, and under usage/clause C should you find what I mean.

    EDIT- Here is another example of danach used as 'in accordance with/to' from Colins:

    "Lesen Sie Paragraf 218; danach ist es verboten" - Read paragraph 218; according to that it is illegal.

    "Danach sein" - to be right (to be in accordance).


    Please tell me, is "Nein, ich habe keine Lust dafür." a valid answer?


    How to write this sentence using "fühle mich" ? (If I wanted to say so) I tried "Nein, Ich fühle mich es nicht" and gave me wrong. Want to know the correct way to say it.


    Why is 'Nein, ich fühle es nicht' rejected?


    @ Laoibhse1

    Because 'Nein, ich fühle es nicht' = "No, I do not feel it." (The person does not feel it/a sensation/a feeling....)

    Which is not the same as saying "I do not feel like it" meaning that the person does not feel like doing something. --------------- Which personally I would translate as: "Nein, ich habe keine Lust darauf. / Nein, ich habe keine Lust dazu." which people used where I lived in Germany. And not Duo's expression "Nein, mir ist nicht danach.". (Which I never heard when living in Germany.)

    But still, 'Nein, ich fühle es nicht' is wrong, means something totally different.


    How about ich habe keine lust


    Could it also be: "Ich habe kein Lust"? Would it be cotrect?



    No, it is "die Lust", "Lust" being/having a feminine gender in German. So it needs to be "keine Lust"

    This page has a whole table with examples of declensions of "kein" a bit down the page. https://blogs.transparent.com/german/i-have-no-negations-with-keinkeinekeinenetc/

    From the same page "In the singular kein is declined like the indefinite articles."

    "In the plural kein is declined like the definite articles."


    So you're not after that..? You don't feel like it.


    What's the difference between, "Mir ist nicht danach" and "ich habe keine Lust"?


    Ich habe kein Lust is accepted


    It shouldn't be, because it is "die Lust", so it should be "Ich habe keine Lust."


    Yes, in these kinds of sentences, ' ist ' actually is in the second position. The expression seems to be straight forward, given the choices, even though it's idiomatic.


    Should ich habe keine Lust darauf have been accepted?


    Is "mir fehlt nicht an" incorrect?


    Could it also be: "Nein, ich habe kein Lust"?

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