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  5. "Las niñas ya habían comido."

"Las niñas ya habían comido."

Translation:The girls had already eaten.

February 25, 2013



Just for the record - is ninas not also a translation for children or would you simply say ninos in that case?


i agree.. if it's a group of girls, can i not still say children for ninas?


You can although it implies the bunch of kids (children) are all female. The general rule in spanish is if it is a mix of sexes then use the male form.

For example the children (boys and girls) = los ninos The parents (husband and wife) = Los padres The siblings (brothers and sisters) = Los hermanos Etc

Hope that helps!


Thanks for the great summary of this TL.I can understand it and move on instead of a long essay that would take me forever to comprehend. Wish everyone who has masterd much would consider us newcomers. Follower


My bad. I mean,TB


I put "the children had already eaten" and it marked it wrong...


When "niñas" is used, it means "only female children," as in this translation: The girls have eaten.


a mixed gender batch of kids = los niños


can anyone tell me why 'the girls have already ate' is not correct?


Well, for one, it makes no grammatical sense in English. "Eaten", maybe.


"Ate" is the English version of the Spanish simple past tense.


First of all had and not have, it's past perfect and not present perfect and secondly, you need to use the v3 form (past participle) when combined with past/present perfect.


Are you addressing shawnruby, NoHablaEspañol?


Would "las ninas ya se habian comido" mean "the girls had already been eaten"?


Tehehe. Well google translate says you're right... Tho G-Translate can be screwy.


Google translate is horrid.


My experience has been that it is generally good and correct..

Probably better than I am.

I have sent far fewer corrections to Google translate than I have to DL.


The kids had already eaten should be accepted.


"Kids" is slang for children. "Kids" actually means "baby goats," and that is what makes "kids" a bad interpretation.


When I arrived for supper, the kid had already been eaten.

"Cuando llegué a cenar, el niño ya había sido comido."


I need to learn the difference between had and have in English. I know it. I just have trouble with it. I HAVE (more recently like today) already eaten and I HAD already eaten (when that event had happened) seriously. Gets me every time.


Think of it this way. You are describing a situation in the past. "I did not eat last night because I had already eaten." It changes to 'have' when you are describing a situation in the present. "I am not eating now, because I have already eaten." It gets even more complex when you are describing a situation in the future. "I will not eat tomorrow night because I will have eaten earlier."


Why is 'have already eaten ' incorrect


Because the Spanish is pluperfect but your English is present perfect. You need to use the same tense for the translation.

Have already eaten = ya han comido (present perfect)

Had already eaten = ya habían comido (pluperfect or past perfect)


You would use "have" if you just asked them, say within the past 5 minutes. "Had" would be used if you asked them, say, yesterday.


With due respect, Quinnbea9, I think you are mistaken. Choice of tense has to do with the speaker wanting to know when something happened. Choice of tense has nothing to do with when a question is asked or a statement is made. So, present tenses are used when speaking about the present, and past tenses are used when speaking about the past.


since ninas are pluriel...should it be the girls have already eaten (pluriels)?


I wrote " Las niñas ya habian comido" and was punished for not putting the accent on the i? " Las niñas ya habían comido" is presented as correct


Let's analyze this: A group of boys in Spanish = los ninos, in English = the boys, the children, the kids A group of boys and girls in Spanish = los ninos, in English = the boys and girls, the children, the kids A group of girls in Spanish = las ninas, in English, the girls, the children, the kids IMHO when translating FROM Spanish TO English, Duolingo's insistence upon las ninas = the girls (only) is missing an important essence of the English language which does not place a strong emphasis on male/female divisions. Indeed, it could even be considered rather sexist.


Please do not take offense, but I believe that DL is trying to instill in us the essential need to understand the male/female divisions (specific to spanish language learning) along with the singular/plural component.


Absolutely no offence taken, Treecie. I wrote this "rant" because I understand that Duolingo uses this same program to teach Spanish speakers English. So my point was directed towards the Spanish to correct/common English translation rather than the essential Spanish male/female divisions.


Ahh, I understand your "rant" more clearly. Here is a lingot for your 86 day streak. ¡Bien hecho!


@kkayda I know it's been a year since you commented. I was always told that 'las niñas' was used only for girls and not children, even when it was only group of girls. Can 'las niñas' be used for children when it's all girls?


Yes, is my understanding.


The Spanish language is what it is. Why insert politics into a language website? DL is only maintaining that a Spanish word should be translated into English so that the original meaning of the Spanish word is maintained.

This being said, your point about this site teaching English to Spanish speakers raises these questions: How do you think Spanish speakers should learn the English noun "children?" Are you suggesting that, as they use this gender-neutral noun, they should come to realize "My language is sexist," and then start using only Spanish masculine gender words as unisex words? Indeed, this could even be considered rather absurd, given that even inanimate nouns have gender. Besides, with the loss of these feminine gender nouns won't a lot of usable vocabulary be scuttled?


In the fast version she stresses the last syllable of 'habían'. In the slow version she stresses all three syllables the same. I´m confused. Surely the second syllable should take the strongest stress given the accent.


Report that the audio needs fixing.


Pronunciation question: Until you slow him down, the "s" is missing from his first two words. Is that common/proper/preferred?


Elision is when two sounds blur into each other, and it happens in every language.


So many comments but no-one seems to have discussed the translation of "ya". I knew "already" was the most acceptable translation, but I tried "just" because this seems to be a common meaning and I could think of scenarios when it would be used in this context, but it wasn't accepted. Any thoughts?


OK, OK ate - eaten ( perfect past irregular present subjunctive participle?) I like most of us use this free App NOT to pass a degree at oxford or cambridge but to simply get a BASIC understanding of spanish. What i witness here takes us down a dark alley that i feel most language learners dont have to walk down, or worse still it makes learners want to QUIT DUOLINGO AND LANGUAGE LEARNING. I will step down from my soapbox and stop ranting now, but i know instinctively something is not right here.


Is "the girls had just eaten" ok? Wasnt accepted

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