I agree. We would almost NEVER say I "took some wine" in American English to mean "I drank some wine." It sounds formal and snobbish. "I took some wine" might mean "to my friend's house." Of course there is no context here. A constant problem with DL. Perhaps DL could improve this lesson with a longer sentence, "J'ai pris du vin a chez mon ami" (No accents on my keyboard.)
The past participle for drink is "bu", so you cant say you drank wine, though it is implied. It just isn't grammatically correct. "Take" in this case, I believe, refers to consumption, like how in 19th century English, and even up until today in some circles, people used language of "taking" their coffee (or whatever) in the afternoon, or with two sugars, or with a cake, etc. For instance, I put "I had some wine" here and it was accepted. But the sentance really means "I have taken some wine." Whether or not the sentance could mean "I took some wine"..."to the party", is a Sitesurf question. "Pris" is the past participle for "prendre", which means "to take", for what it's worth.
I believe prendre is used often with food/drink and in that context could be understood more easily as to "partake" of something. To me it also implies an experience or even enjoyment rather than just the biological function of eating/drinking. Like saying "We had lunch" instead of "we ate a sandwich". They evoke different feelings. This is just my opinion and how i make sense of prendre in this context.
"I took some wine" is an acceptable sentence in Engilsh in the context of, for example, "I took two bottles of wine to my friend's house". I guess the French sentence could also be used in this context, in which case there'd be no issue. The question does arise, as others have mentioned, as to whether the French sentence may also mean, "I drank some wine."