I recently learned that agua is a feminine noun, despite the fact that it is used with el and un. This is because la agua "sounds strange" with the a sounds coming together. Apparently this also applies to other similar nouns. I am curious why there isn't something similar for mi hija (or mi hijo). Would the same principle not apply?
How would it be changed? With 'agua' you have the option of one of two different genders. With the phrase 'mi hija' you just have the word 'mi'. It doesn't change into a different word that nonetheless means the same thing, as you have with 'el' and 'la'. The only variation (that I am aware of; I am by no means even semi-fluent) is 'mis', which is merely plural.
Maybe in twohundred years, mis agua will be standard for that reason. You never know!
To answer the question, no. Only a small number of words make such a change. La->el, y->e, o->u are the ones i know.
You can have a liason. It's extremely common. If you have to say la agua you can pronounce it as "lagua" and still be correct. Same with mi hija(o). You can pronounce it as "meeha" and "meeho"
There kind of is, they combine the two words into one making it mijo or mija
They are not. "noodle" is a hyponym of "pasta". Lasagna for example is pasta, but not noodles.
pasta means : apaste in processed form (as spaghetti) or or in the form of fresh dough (as ravioli). Also could be a dish of cooked pasta. noodle : a food paste made with egg and shaped typically in ribbon form. That's what the Merriam Webster Dictionary says.
Duolingo doesn't want us to write synonyms, but to make the translation of what we read.
In English they are, but working in English doesn't mean it will work in other languages.
Please see above comments. Even finding a word in a list of "synonyms" somewhere does not mean it always has the exact same meaning as the original word. All noodles are pasta, perhaps; but not all pasta is noodles.
Pasta refers to the noodles themselves as opposed to the noodles and sauce.
because of the tense, in Spanish they used Present, indicative, and you used progressive : mi hija está com iendo pasta.
Why does my hispanic friend say/write mija instead of hija. Is she qrong or is it a different rule?
that is what i was wondering 2. i thought it was" mi'ja "for "my daughter"
It is certainly pronounced that way. I have seen it written that way at least a few times. That might not be the standard in some grammar books, but... this is one of those cases where I might say "non-standard" instead of just "wrong." I'm keeping in mind that standards change. Words are added to dictionaries, some are removed, and so are meanings (added and removed).
Because of the way some people pronounce mi hija, the words kind of get jumbled together. Kind of like in english how we usually say can't instead of cannot. Mi'ja is kind of like slang, whereas mi hija is the proper way of saying it, if you will.
I wanted to write "my daughter eats paste" or "dough" so bad. It is given on the list for the translation of pasta, so why is it not correct?
shouldn't capitalized Daughter count to.... i mean come on what does it matter